NBME Comprehensive Basic Science Examination (CBSE) Practice Exam

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• In diastolic heart failure, which parameter is typically preserved?
• Enterococcus infections susceptible to synergy with an aminoglycoside are best treated with which regimen?
• Lumbar spinal stenosis is caused by thickening of which spinal structure?
• In monitoring thoracic involvement in ankylosing spondylitis, which measurement is most informative?
• Streptococcus pyogenes virulence factor M protein functions to:
• The release of acetylcholine at the neuromuscular junction is triggered by calcium entry through which channels?
• Fragile X syndrome is caused by expansion of CGG repeats in which gene?
• Which class of medication is used to treat PAH by blocking endothelin receptors?
• Hereditary orotic aciduria is due to defect in which enzyme?
• Small cell lung carcinoma secretes which hormones?
• Ulcerative colitis typically shows which pattern of involvement?
• In a tricyclic antidepressant overdose, which electrocardiographic finding is classically prolonged?
• What is the normal alveolar-arterial oxygen gradient (A-a gradient) range?
• The axillary nerve is primarily responsible for innervation of which muscle?
• Which adverse effect is associated with prednisone therapy used to treat giant cell arteritis?
• Squamous cell carcinoma of the lung commonly presents as which radiographic feature?
• Cyclosporine inhibits IL-2 production via calcineurin as part of its mechanism. Which agent is this describing?
• Ankylosing spondylitis most commonly affects which demographic?
• The leading risk factors for deep vein thrombosis and pulmonary embolism include which combination?
• Toxic Shock Syndrome Toxin (TSST-1) activates which cells to cause a cytokine storm?
• Wernicke encephalopathy triad includes which combination?
• Which statement best describes Legionella’s Gram staining characteristic?
• Which ocular complication is commonly associated with giant cell arteritis?
• First-order pharmacokinetics implies a constant fraction of drug is eliminated per unit time.
• Erythropoietin production in the kidney is stimulated by hypoxia sensed by which renal cells?
• In chronic kidney disease, which hematology abnormality is classically observed?
• Bupropion's mechanism of action is which of the following?
• Which agent is used to reverse norepinephrine-induced vasoconstriction during tissue necrosis (extravasation)?
• Macrocytosis in pancreatitis is most closely associated with deficiency of which nutrient?
• Arteriosclerosis described here is associated with fibrosis of which airway structure?
• Which of the following is NOT listed as an association with diastolic heart failure?
• Lamotrigine is approved for treatment of which conditions?
• Direct inguinal hernia is located in which anatomical area?
• Desmosine crosslinks are a characteristic feature of the elasticity of which extracellular matrix protein?
• Which parasite is associated with hydatid cysts that may cause anaphylaxis if the cyst is ruptured?
• PML MRI features in HIV?
• Parvovirus B19 infection in children typically presents with which finding?
• In clear cell renal cell carcinoma, which vascular pattern is described as 'chicken wire' vasculature?
• Reactive arthritis is often triggered by infection with which organism?
• The murmur of aortic stenosis is described as which?
• Which nerve innervates the serratus anterior?
• Which of the following is a nonstimulant used for ADHD?
• Lipoprotein lipase deficiency presents with elevated plasma levels of which lipid?
• What lab value must be checked before starting metformin therapy?
• Diabetic optic neuropathy is primarily due to which pathophysiologic process?
• Placenta accreta commonly leads to hemorrhage because the placental tissue fails to detach from which tissue?
• Neurocysticercosis commonly presents with which symptom?
• To prevent tolerance to nitrates, which strategy is recommended?
• Which enzyme deficiency leads to Krabbe disease?
• Which pigment is produced from tyrosine metabolism and contributes to skin and hair coloration?
• Which cardiac complication is most classically associated with hemochromatosis?
• Injury to the long thoracic nerve produces which sign?
• Which finding is typical of Acute Interstitial Nephritis?
• Which neonatal complication is commonly associated with maternal gestational diabetes?
• HELLP stands for which combination of findings?
• Rifaximin is an antibiotic used to decrease ammonia production in the GI tract.
• Blocking L-type calcium channels in pacemaker cells results in which effect on the action potential?
• What is a common adverse effect of acarbose and miglitol?
• The ureteric bud contributes to which component of the renal collecting system?
• In X-linked agammaglobulinemia, which organism infection is commonly observed?
• Hyaline arteriolosclerosis is most associated with which disease?
• Among heart sounds, P2 is louder than A2 in which condition?
• Spironolactone is used in congestive heart failure for its potassium-sparing diuretic effect and for reducing ventricular remodeling. Which option best reflects its primary diuretic action?
• Which condition is a normochromic, nonhemolytic anemia associated with chronic disease?
• Which antiplatelet therapy is commonly used to prevent TIAs?
• During the recovery phase of ATN, what happens to electrolytes and water?
• Mutation in the VHL gene predisposes to which cancer?
• What is a common cause of an aortic fistula?
• Humoral acute transplant rejection shows which histopathologic feature?
• Subacute granulomatous thyroiditis is most commonly associated with which etiology?
• Lead poisoning inhibits which enzyme in heme biosynthesis?
• In hyperaldosteronism, why does serum sodium not rise as much as expected?
• HPV types 6 and 11 are associated with which cancer?
• Resection of the ileum in Crohn disease can lead to deficiency of which vitamin?
• The Substantia nigra primarily uses which neurotransmitter?
• Charcot joints are associated with which type of degeneration?
• Which drug inhibits 5-lipoxygenase in the leukotriene pathway?
• Which agent is a muscarinic receptor agonist used to promote detrusor contraction and bladder emptying after surgery?
• Aprepitant antiemetic blocks substance P via antagonism of which receptor?
• HIV dementia pathology involves infection of CNS cells by microglia forming what structures?
• Vitamin K deficiency presents with which of the following?
• A classic radiographic finding in advanced hyperparathyroidism is which of the following?
• Which vitamin is required for collagen hydroxylation and for the conversion of dopamine to norepinephrine?
• Hypoxic-ischemic encephalopathy produces watershed necrosis most often between which arterial territories?
• Cromolyn has which mechanism and clinical use?
• Vasoconstriction from alpha-adrenergic agonists can trigger a reflex that decreases heart rate due to increased vagal tone. Which of the following best describes this effect?
• What is the mechanism of action of adenosine?
• In vitamin B12 deficiency, which metabolic markers are elevated?
• A common peroneal nerve injury typically produces which combination of findings?
• Blue sclerae and dental abnormalities are characteristic of which disorder?
• Degenerative disease of the caudate nucleus and putamen is most characteristic of which condition?
• Gilbert syndrome is characterized by which pattern of jaundice?
• Which antidote is used as an alternative to thiosulfate in cyanide poisoning?
• Right lower lobe infiltrate on imaging most likely indicates which type of pneumonia with exudate?
• Acute gastritis is caused by which of the following?
• Carcinoid heart disease affects which heart valves?
• Gestational choriocarcinoma is a malignant tumor of trophoblasts that classically shows
• Which medication class is used to treat osteoporosis by inhibiting osteoclast formation at the ruffled border?
• Excitation-contraction coupling in skeletal muscle involves which of the following?
• Which class of antiarrhythmics is characterized by beta-adrenergic blockade?
• Omalizumab is a monoclonal antibody that targets which molecule?
• In tabes dorsalis, which neural structure is primarily affected, leading to sensory ataxia and lancinating pains?
• Parathyroid hormone (PTH) increases calcium reabsorption in which renal segment?
• Which hypothalamic nucleus contains neurons that produce oxytocin and antidiuretic hormone and projects to the posterior pituitary?
• Diphenoxylate is best described as what?
• Secretin has which main effect on the pancreas?
• DPP-4 inhibitors increase GLP-1 and GIP.
• Vitamin C is chemically which compound?
• Which medication is a 5α-reductase inhibitor?
• Tendinous xanthomas are most commonly located on which tendon?
• Which describes the mechanism of action of acyclovir against herpesviruses?
• Esophageal dysfunction can be caused by enlargement of which cardiac chamber?
• Epidural hematoma classically results from rupture of which artery?
• Cluster headache autonomic symptoms on the affected side commonly include which of the following?
• A common adverse effect of antimetabolites is which of the following?
• The adverse effects of Foscarnet include hypocalcemia and hypomagnesemia due to chelation of calcium and magnesium. Which option best reflects this?
• In patent ductus arteriosus, what is the direction of the common shunt?
• Primary adrenal insufficiency (Addison disease) is characterized by
• What second messenger is increased by beta-2 agonists in airway smooth muscle?
• Which pharmacologic agent is commonly used to reduce airway inflammation in COPD?
• Which of the following best describes the vascular pathology of Buerger's disease?
• Aldolase B deficiency causes hypoglycemia after ingestion of which type of sugar?
• Which sign is classically associated with deep venous thrombosis and can suggest a thromboembolic event?
• Which nerve is associated with the first pharyngeal arch?
• Which class prolongs the QRS duration but not the QT interval?
• BRCA tumor suppressor mutations are shown to be risk factors for which cancer?
• Renal osteodystrophy, a bone disorder in CKD, is best described as which condition?
• Nitrates increase cGMP leading to which effect?
• Which agent is a monoclonal antibody used in asthma management by targeting IgE?
• Which thyroid-related adverse effect is associated with chronic lithium therapy?
• In Lyme disease, Stage 2 typically presents with which finding and is commonly treated with which antibiotic?
• Which binding site is required for the carboxylation of clotting factors?
• Increased lactose in the lac operon system leads to which effect on transcription?
• Which cell type is primarily responsible for bone resorption?
• In homocystinuria, which feature is typical?
• Which ocular finding is associated with congenital CMV infection?
• Ezetimibe lowers cholesterol primarily by inhibiting absorption in the intestine via NPC1L1. Which of the following is a related effect on LDL receptors?
• Which stimulus promotes pepsinogen release from chief cells?
• What murmur is typical of an atrial septal defect?
• The Locus Coeruleus is most closely linked to arousal and anxiety through its production of which neurotransmitter?
• Which pupil finding is characteristic of neurosyphilis?
• Aortic dystrophic calcification is most closely associated with which process?
• Which statement is true regarding tricuspid regurgitation?
• Cardiac involvement in SLE can manifest as which of the following?
• The suffix commonly used for H2 receptor antagonists is which?
• SSPE is a late complication of infection with which virus?
• Pulsatile administration of GnRH (leuprolide) has what effect on LH and testosterone?
• Vitamin A toxicity presents with which of the following features?
• Doxorubicin is an example of which class of anticancer drugs?
• Standardized patient handouts are used to improve which aspect of care?
• Which molecule secreted by Staphylococcus aureus can be used by Haemophilus influenzae as a growth factor?
• Which medication decreases smoking cravings?
• Which adverse effect is associated with carbamazepine?
• In celiac disease, malabsorption of which vitamin in the duodenum contributes to hypocalcemia and osteomalacia?
• Giant cell arteritis typically involves which artery?
• The ventral posteromedial nucleus (VPM) of the thalamus relays sensory information from which regions?
• Verapamil and Diltiazem are which class of antiarrhythmics?
• In primary hyperthyroidism, which laboratory pattern is typically observed?
• Digoxin toxicity may present with which ocular symptom?
• Smooth muscle relaxation is mediated by NO through which second messenger?
• Which of the following is a common etiology of aortic stenosis?
• Epinephrine's effect on insulin secretion is best described as which of the following?
• A lesion of the posterior cerebral artery most likely causes which cranial nerve palsy?
• Cystinuria, the cause of cystine stones, is inherited in which pattern?
• Nitrates decrease which preload parameter most notably?
• Which finding is most consistent with a tension pneumothorax?
• Parvovirus B19 replication occurs primarily in which cells?
• Statins lower LDL cholesterol in part by which mechanism?
• Bilateral heteronymous hemianopsia results from lesion at which structure?
• Bosentan is used to treat pulmonary arterial hypertension and functions as an antagonist of which receptor family?
• Berger disease is best described by which finding?
• Anosmia with infertility is most characteristic of which condition?
• Vitamin E primarily functions as what in the body?
• Which drugs are ENaC inhibitors used for potassium-sparing effects?
• Phenelzine belongs to which class of antidepressants?
• Fenoldopam is a selective agonist of which receptor?
• Anus drains to which lymph node group?
• Vitamin A deficiency is described as being caused by which process?
• Which immunoglobulin is associated with erythroblastosis fetalis and hemolytic disease of the newborn?
• Where is an osteochondroma most commonly located?
• Decreased blood pressure triggers which baroreceptor response?
• Low magnesium leads to what effect on PTH?
• Below the dentate line, hemorrhoids drain into which venous system?
• In pediatric Acute Lymphoblastic Leukemia, which translocation is most commonly associated?
• Which drug is a PDE-5 inhibitor used to treat PAH by increasing cGMP?
• Chronic hyponatremia can be associated with which of the following conditions?
• Which drug is an NMDA receptor antagonist?
• Minimal change disease is often preceded by which setting?
• Membranous nephropathy is classically associated with which finding?
• HER1 oncogene is associated with which lung cancer histology?
• A histologic feature of a complete hydatidiform mole is
• In diabetic ketoacidosis, what happens to total body potassium?
• Which immunohistochemical marker is positive in pilocytic astrocytoma?
• Cyproheptadine is best described as which type of drug?
• Which DR haplotype is associated with rheumatoid arthritis, type 1 diabetes mellitus, and Addison disease?
• Rocker-bottom feet are a characteristic feature of which trisomy?
• Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy is most commonly inherited in which pattern?
• Fetal lung maturity is determined by measuring which ratio?
• Which apolipoprotein allele is associated with an increased risk of late-onset Alzheimer's disease?
• Grossly, clear cell RCC often appears yellow due to accumulation of which substances in tumor cells?
• Horner's syndrome includes which triad?
• A classic pruritus symptom seen in polycythemia vera is exacerbated by which trigger?
• Gastrin release can be increased by which of the following luminal stimuli?
• Which agent counteracts MTX toxicity by providing reduced folate?
• Which finding is characteristic of Thrombotic Thrombocytopenic Purpura (TTP)?
• Argatroban is commonly used for the management of which condition?
• Which condition causes normochromic, hemolytic anemia due to a defect in beta-globin that leads to red cell sickling?
• Which pouch is the rectouterine pouch located in?
• In hypothesis testing, what does a p-value less than 0.05 generally indicate?
• A major adverse effect of tPA therapy is which of the following?
• Prostate drains to which lymph nodes?
• Portosystemic anastomoses: which connection forms part of the portosystemic collaterals?
• Which statement differentiates Rotor syndrome from Dubin-Johnson syndrome?
• Which cellular processes involve mRNA?
• Which red blood cell morphology finding is typical in myelofibrosis?
• Which property of a volatile anesthetic primarily determines a fast onset of action?
• Doxazosin is an example of which drug class used to treat BPH?
• Which cytokine activates natural killer cells and promotes Th1 differentiation?
• Which organism causes chancroid?
• Ganciclovir is used to treat CMV infections and functions by which mechanism?
• Which class of antidepressants is associated with anticholinergic side effects such as urinary retention and constipation?
• Niacin is a precursor to which essential coenzyme pair?
• Autoinfarction of the spleen in childhood can cause splenic sequestration in which disease?
• Which agent is used topically for the treatment of scabies?
• Which component from Hepatitis B is required by Hepatitis D for replication?
• Afferent limb of the gag reflex is carried by which nerve?
• Polyarteritis nodosa is characterized by which histopathologic finding involving arteries?
• Which hypothalamic nucleus is primarily responsible for producing ADH and oxytocin?
• Charcot-Leyden crystals in sputum are derived from which cells?
• Enoxaparin primarily exerts its effect by which action?
• Which antibody is primarily involved in mucosal immunity and is especially important in protecting the GI tract?
• Terbinafine is commonly used to treat which type of infection?
• Daptomycin’s mechanism of action involves which effect on the bacterial cell?
• Which drug is an RTK inhibitor that targets EGFR?
• Polycystic ovary syndrome is associated with an increased risk of which cancer?
• Glossitis is a hallmark symptom of deficiency of which vitamin?
• Which enzyme catalyzes the breakdown of hydrogen peroxide to water and oxygen, protecting cells from oxidative damage?
• Which peritoneal space collects fluids when a person is supine?
• Wernicke encephalopathy is associated with thiamine deficiency. Thiamine is a cofactor for which enzyme?
• Lidocaine for a femoral nerve block is most appropriately administered at which anatomical location?
• Methotrexate acts as which type of agent?
• Mitral stenosis severity is best estimated by which of the following?
• Which equation correctly calculates Likelihood Ratio Positive (LR+)?
• What is a classic morphological feature of nephritis associated with SLE (diffuse proliferative lupus nephritis)?
• Which antipsychotic is indicated for treatment-resistant schizophrenia?
• The first pharyngeal arch gives rise to which skeletal elements?
• Which finding is typical of aortic dissection?
• IgA antibodies are primarily found in which locations?
• EBV immortalizes B cells as a hallmark of its oncogenic process.
• Which is a defining feature of Tetralogy of Fallot?
• In the treatment sequence for cyanide poisoning, which agent is given after the methemoglobin-inducing agent to detoxify cyanide?
• Which anti-TB drug is known to cause color vision disturbances?
• What is particularly inadvisable to do while taking oral contraceptive pills (OCPs)?
• Which condition is typically covered by a peritoneal sac?
• Which statement about Norovirus is true?
• In the classic adenoma-carcinoma sequence, which gene mutation is typically initiating?
• Which hormone stimulates lipolysis in adipose tissue during fasting?
• Cerebellar hemisphere lesions most commonly produce signs in which part of the body?
• In thyrotoxicosis due to an exogenous thyroid hormone source (high T4), what happens to TSH?
• Vecuronium produces what type of neuromuscular blockade?
• Which sequence describes the fetal changes associated with gestational diabetes?
• Endothelin receptor antagonists exert therapeutic effects in PAH by blocking the action of what vasoconstrictor?
• Which HLA-DR haplotype is associated with multiple autoimmune diseases including MS, SLE, and Goodpasture syndrome?
• Before starting metformin, what test should be checked?
• Vitamin D toxicity most commonly presents with which of the following?
• Antibody-dependent cellular cytotoxicity (ADCC) is most closely associated with which hypersensitivity type?
• Loss of sensation over the shoulder region and inability to abduct the arm suggests injury to which nerve?
• Myeloperoxidase activity in neutrophils contributes to which sputum color?
• Which drug is used in continuous administration to treat metastatic prostatic adenocarcinoma?
• Pulmonary vascular resistance is lowest during which phase of the respiratory cycle?
• What is the first-line therapy for primary biliary cholangitis?
• Phenelzine and selegiline belong to which class of antidepressants?
• Conjugate gaze pathways cross at which structure?
• The testicular arteries arise from which major vessel?
• What molecule starts bilirubin synthesis?
• Digoxin is primarily eliminated by which route?
• Transfusion of packed red blood cells can cause paresthesias in the extremities due to what mechanism?
• Which condition causes decreased preload due to increased intrathoracic pressure and requires urgent management?
• Sunitinib and Sorafenib are inhibitors of which receptor family?
• In Cushing disease, how does ACTH respond to a high-dose dexamethasone suppression test?
• Which white blood cell has a bilobed nucleus?
• In abetalipoproteinemia, enterocytes characteristically show which feature?
• Which urine finding is most consistent with prerenal azotemia?
• C5a complement component recruits which cells to the lung?
• Myelofibrosis can lead to hyperuricemia and gout due to increased cell turnover.
• Which of the following is NOT part of the reactive arthritis triad?
• Vitamin C deficiency leads to which disease?
• Gastric acid is secreted by which stomach cells?
• Which statement best describes a NOT feature of tabes dorsalis?
• Alkaptonuria results from deficiency of which enzyme?
• Interscalene nerve block can cause which of the following complications?
• Cystine stones are caused by which inherited disorder?
• Mesothelioma is most strongly associated with exposure to which substance?
• Which antibiotic inhibits dihydrofolate reductase in bacteria, similar to methotrexate?
• Rank the following health plans by typical monthly premium costs from highest to lowest: PPO, HMO, POS.
• In hypercalcemia of malignancy, which mediator is most commonly responsible for the elevated calcium when PTH is suppressed?
• Imperforate hymen typically presents with
• Horner's syndrome results from injury to which autonomic pathway?
• Where is erythropoietin produced in the kidney?
• Which adverse effects are more commonly associated with low-potency typical antipsychotics?
• Ciclopirox antifungal activity is best described by which mechanism?
• Which statement correctly describes the mechanism of action of tamsulosin in the management of BPH?
• Which condition is a non-B12/folate cause of macrocytic anemia?
• Common adverse effects of adenosine include?
• In a case-control study, the odds ratio is calculated as which expression?
• Intermittent claudication is most likely due to atherosclerosis affecting which artery?
• Which organism lacks a cell wall?
• Guillain-Barré syndrome is commonly preceded by which event?
• Which of the following is a Class III antiarrhythmic that prolongs the QT interval and can cause torsades de pointes?
• Metronidazole is effective against which of the following organisms?
• Which pairing correctly matches a bone lesion with its typical location?
• ACE inhibitors have a risk of angioedema due to bradykinin accumulation; which option lists this adverse effect last?
• Which tumor marker is elevated in gestational trophoblastic disease?
• Which statement best describes the immunopathology of sarcoidosis?
• EBV infectious mononucleosis dx test?
• Hemagglutinin mediates entry for which virus?
• Calcium pyrophosphate crystals in pseudogout show which type of birefringence under polarized light?
• Which histologic pattern is commonly described in Burkitt lymphoma?
• Which best describes the mechanism of action of nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors (NRTIs)?
• Necrolytic migratory erythema presents as which skin finding?
• Which two drugs are aldosterone antagonists used for potassium-sparing effects?
• If a parent refuses treatment for a minor, which legal remedy is typically pursued?
• From which embryologic structure is the superior vena cava derived?
• In distinguishing psychogenic polydipsia from diabetes insipidus, which response to desmopressin (ADH) is typical in psychogenic polydipsia?
• Which infection is commonly associated with communicating hydrocephalus due to impaired CSF absorption?
• Increased acetylcholine is associated with which neurodegenerative disease?
• Aldosterone primarily increases reabsorption of which ion in the kidney?
• Which hormone stimulates gluconeogenesis by converting oxaloacetate to phosphoenolpyruvate?
• Which of the following is NOT a listed virulence factor of Staphylococcus aureus?
• Which combination of signs is typical of Graves ophthalmopathy?
• Aspergillus forms a fungus ball by colonizing cavitations in the lungs. This colonization most accurately describes which phenomenon?
• Which suffix is correctly associated with the thiazolidinedione class?
• Which acetylcholinesterase inhibitor is used in HIV dementia?
• Which adverse effect is most characteristically associated with antimetabolites?
• Pramipexole is which type of dopamine receptor agonist?
• In dilated cardiomyopathy, which etiologic factor is commonly implicated?
• Which therapy is commonly used in polycystic ovary syndrome to suppress LH and decrease androgen production?
• Hemolytic disease of the newborn is associated with which hematologic findings?
• In poststreptococcal glomerulonephritis (PSGN), which of the following is characteristic?
• In hyperaldosteronism, the phenomenon that prevents continued sodium retention despite high aldosterone is called
• Foscarnet has which pharmacologic property?
• Pyruvate carboxylase catalyzes the conversion of pyruvate to oxaloacetate in which cellular compartment, and which cofactor is required?
• In fetal circulation, the blood with the highest oxygen content is found in which vessel?
• Autoimmune gastritis predisposes to which hematologic condition?
• Which disorder is defined by intentional production of symptoms to assume the sick role, without external incentives?
• Which enzyme converts testosterone to dihydrotestosterone (DHT)?
• Cysteine becomes essential in which condition?
• Meckel diverticulum is described as which type and location?
• Which medication is used for alcohol withdrawal and is a long-acting benzodiazepine?
• Endometrial hyperplasia is most commonly associated with which symptom?
• Which lysosomal storage disorder carries risk of serious organ damage including heart, cerebrovascular disease, and kidney disease?
• Zileuton inhibits which enzyme, thereby blocking leukotriene synthesis?
• Which of the following best describes conversion disorder?
• Charcot-Bouchard microaneurysms are most likely to affect which brain region?
• Porphyria cutanea tarda is due to deficiency of which enzyme?
• Horizontal gaze palsy is due to a lesion of which nerve?
• Osmotic demyelination syndrome is classically precipitated by rapid correction of which electrolyte disturbance?
• Initial management of tumor lysis syndrome commonly includes which supportive measure?
• Which lipid-lowering medication should be avoided in gallbladder disease due to risk of gallstones?
• Cushing ulcers in the stomach are associated with which condition?
• Which physical finding is classic for congenital hypothyroidism?
• What happens to the tubular fluid in the thin descending limb of the loop of Henle?
• Which description best fits the genetic mechanism of Familial Adenomatous Polyposis?
• Which muscle initiates shoulder abduction?
• Which statement best describes the most clinically relevant adverse effect of TZDs?
• Which antiarrhythmic is associated with dyslipidemia?
• Through which route is digoxin primarily excreted?
• In PNH, loss of GPI anchors leads to absence of which protective surface protein on red blood cells?
• Abetalipoproteinemia is characterized by absence of which lipoproteins?
• Antimetabolites exert cytotoxic effects during which phase of the cell cycle?
• Which statement best describes cerebellar peduncle functions?
• Dopamine at low dose primarily activates which receptor to cause renal vasodilation and increased urine output?
• Which of the following is NOT a common etiology of aortic stenosis?
• Which histologic description is classically used to depict plasma cells in multiple myeloma?
• During the third trimester, which surfactant component becomes relatively more abundant, consistent with an L >> S pattern?
• Panhypopituitarism can present with which combination of features?
• ABL oncogene is associated with which leukemia?
• All four alpha-globin genes deleted results in which condition?
• Alpha-fetoprotein is a marker most closely associated with which condition?
• Which middle ear bone is derived from the second pharyngeal arch?
• Which DR haplotype is associated with type 1 diabetes mellitus, SLE, Graves, Hashimoto, and Addison disease?
• In Huntington's disease, which pair of neurotransmitters is increased?
• Which description best fits schizoid personality disorder?
• Which statement best describes the enzyme deficiency in Gilbert syndrome?
• Which brain region is most vulnerable to ischemia?
• Anteromedial fracture of the humerus is most likely to injure which structure?
• Mutations in which gene are commonly targeted in melanoma therapy?
• Parainfluenza infection classically presents with which syndrome in infants?
• Warfarin reduces synthesis of which vitamin K–dependent factors?
• Vitamin B12 is essential for DNA synthesis and is also known as which compound?
• Glucagon is secreted by which pancreatic cell type?
• Which agent is commonly used to treat CMV retinitis in immunocompromised patients?
• Late disseminated Lyme disease can present with which combination of symptoms?
• Doxorubicin is commonly associated with which adverse effect?
• Which class does Erythromycin belong to?
• Which combination of neurological signs is typical of Friedreich ataxia?
• In the extrinsic coagulation pathway, tissue factor interacts with which coagulation factor?
• Clomiphene acts as a selective estrogen receptor modulator in PCOS by which principal mechanism?
• Which drug reduces heart rate by blocking the funny (If) current in the SA node?
• Which organism's capsule is associated with neonatal meningitis?
• Which cell type is most abundant in the myocardium at 1–3 days after infarction?
• A lesion in the brainstem above the corticospinal tract decussation would produce motor weakness on which side?
• Gamma-Glutamyl Transferase is typically elevated in cholestasis. Which enzyme is most specific for cholestasis?
• What is the mechanism of action of itraconazole?
• Carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA) is commonly used to monitor recurrence of which cancer?
• In a patient with suspected pulmonary embolism and low-to-moderate probability, which test is most commonly used to exclude the diagnosis?
• In Acute Tubular Necrosis, which electrolyte pattern is typical?
• Which finding can be associated with congenital CMV infection?
• Gerstmann syndrome includes which of the following as hallmark features?
• Where is the H+/K+ ATPase enzyme, which PPIs target, located?
• Linkage disequilibrium is defined as alleles at two loci that are inherited together more or less than expected.
• What is a common treatment approach for polyarteritis nodosa?
• Burkitt lymphoma is associated with which translocation?
• TNF-B (lymphotoxin) is described as having what effect on the immune response?
• The activation step that converts calcifediol to calcitriol in granulomatous diseases is which enzyme?
• Interleukin-10 has what effect on the immune response?
• RB tumor suppressor mutations are classically associated with which cancers?
• Diphtheria toxin exerts its effect by which mechanism?
• Which medication is commonly used to treat Crohn disease?
• ACE inhibitors taken during pregnancy are teratogenic and cause which fetal abnormality?
• Which disorder presents with nystagmus, partial albinism, and recurrent infections?
• Which statement is true about amphotericin B?
• Ash leaf spots are characteristic of which genetic disorder?
• Richter transformation refers to the progression of CLL into which type of lymphoma?
• Which statement is true about Timolol?
• H. pylori gastritis is typically located in which region of the stomach?
• Brown pigment stones are associated with infection by which organisms?
• Which feature is most characteristic of Tay-Sachs disease?
• Which serologic marker is associated with Ulcerative Colitis?
• Which inheritance pattern is characteristic of Chediak-Higashi syndrome?
• Rupture of Charcot-Bouchard microaneurysm can involve perforators to which thalamic nucleus, causing sensory loss?
• In high-dose dexamethasone suppression testing, lack of cortisol suppression suggests an ectopic ACTH source. Which choice best expresses this?
• H. pylori duodenal ulcer disease treatment includes a proton pump inhibitor along with antibiotics. Which option represents a proton pump inhibitor?
• Which blot technique is used to analyze DNA sequences?
• To prevent neonatal tetanus, the recommended public health measure is to:
• By 2 weeks to 2 months after infarction, what best describes the repaired tissue?
• Which molecule is involved in the tight adhesion of neutrophils to the endothelium?
• Thiamine (vitamin B1) is a cofactor for which of the following enzymes?
• Transitional cell carcinoma of the bladder commonly presents with which urinary finding?
• In managing rheumatoid arthritis, which combination is often used to rapidly control inflammation?
• Which symptoms typically occur within 6-24 hours after alcohol cessation?
• Partial hydatidiform mole is characterized by
• Metronidazole MOA?
• Thumb drop is a hallmark sign of injury to which nerve?
• Which adverse effect is classic with intermittent Levodopa therapy?
• Which statement describes a key metabolic approach to Maple Syrup Urine Disease management aside from dietary restriction?
• CD28 receptor on T cells binds to which ligand on antigen-presenting cells to promote activation?
• Difference between Obsessive-Compulsive Personality Disorder and OCD?
• Among asbestos-related conditions, which cancer is most strongly associated?
• Tacrolimus is often used as an alternative to cyclosporine as a calcineurin inhibitor. Which option correctly identifies Tacrolimus in this context?
• Necrotizing enterocolitis is suggested by which findings?
• Which anti-TB drug is particularly associated with hyperuricemia?
• Which drug is a classic Class IV antiarrhythmic that commonly causes constipation?
• Which statement best defines a Type II error?
• Ribose-5-phosphate is used primarily for the synthesis of which biomolecules?
• Thyroglobulin plus which element is required to form T3?
• Amantadine has what mechanism of action?
• Dorsal column dysfunction in B12 deficiency presents with which sign?
• Which type of intracranial hemorrhage can cause hydrocephalus?
• Which statement differentiates Rotor syndrome from Dubin-Johnson syndrome?
• Atherosclerosis affects which arterial bed according to the material?
• Dysphagia in lateral medullary (Wallenberg) syndrome is due to involvement of which nucleus?
• Which pregnancy complication is associated with elevated liver enzymes and low platelets?
• In Acute Intermittent Porphyria, the urine typically appears which?
• Which virus is wheel-shaped?
• Which lesion is commonly associated with tuberous sclerosis complex?
• The SA node is located in which chamber and near which structure?
• Which leukotriene receptor antagonist is used for asthma management?
• Which feature is commonly seen in Addison disease due to elevated ACTH?
• Meglitinides such as repaglinide and nateglinide produce insulin release by which mechanism?
• A communicating hydrocele in the vagina is best described as
• Which statement about H2 receptor antagonists is true?
• Which statement best describes the pathophysiology of hepatic encephalopathy related to ammonia and glutamine?
• Phenylephrine acts as an agonist at which receptor?
• The autoantibody most characteristic of myasthenia gravis targets which molecule?
• UMP synthase defect leads to which condition?
• In thoracic outlet syndrome, compression of the subclavian vein most commonly causes which symptom?
• Which sign is commonly observed in infants with congenital hydrocephalus?
• Which drug is a GLP-1 receptor agonist?
• SIADH is best described as which condition?
• Homonymous hemianopsia lesion localizes to which structure on the contralateral side?
• Which mechanism characterizes benzodiazepines?
• Which liver pathology is characteristic of Reye syndrome?
• Meckel diverticulum is located at which portion of the intestine?
• Which molecule is required for nitric oxide synthesis?
• Which statement correctly describes the fetal benefit mechanism of dexamethasone when given antenatally?
• Legionella is best cultured on which specialized medium?
• Which statement best describes gastroschisis?
• In rheumatoid arthritis, cervical spine involvement can lead to instability; what is the implication for tracheal intubation?
• In cirrhosis, prognosis is determined by which laboratory parameters?
• Which medication is an alpha-1 blocker commonly used to treat BPH?
• Which disease presents with neuro involvement, cherry-red macula, and hepatosplenomegaly?
• Which condition is a classic cause of high anion gap metabolic acidosis?
• Sildenafil, tadalafil, and vardenafil are examples of which drug class?
• Hypoketotic hypoglycemia during fasting is due to a defect in which metabolic process?
• Cholecystitis is typically located at which structure?
• Which sign is commonly associated with neuroblastoma due to orbital metastasis?
• Drug-induced SLE is most strongly associated with antibodies to which antigen?
• Uncal herniation leads to compression of which cranial nerve, producing a fixed, dilated pupil?
• Graft-versus-host disease involves donor immune cells attacking host tissues; which two tissues are classically involved according to the source material?
• Which finding is most characteristic of an upper motor neuron lesion?
• Enoxaparin binds to which molecule to exert its effect?
• Which finding is typical of hypoparathyroidism after thyroidectomy?
• Which clinical feature is commonly associated with prolactinoma in women?
• During menopause, which hormone increases?
• Which combination should be avoided due to additive negative chronotropic effect when using Verapamil or Diltiazem?
• Which enzyme is used by retroviruses to synthesize DNA from their RNA genome?
• Which meningitis-causing bacterium has an effective vaccine as part of routine immunization?
• Which is a negative symptom of schizophrenia?
• Phenytoin exposure during pregnancy is associated with which fetal defect?
• ACTH-independent Cushing syndrome due to a unilateral adrenal adenoma is typically associated with which of the following ACTH levels?
• Desmopressin increases circulating levels of which molecule to enhance hemostasis?
• Which nucleus is most directly involved in dopamine production and movement control?
• Which statement correctly describes the behavioral changes associated with hemispheric brain lesions?
• Measles rash is described as which of the following?
• Fanconi syndrome causes phosphate wasting contributing to osteopenia; which electrolyte abnormality is typically seen?
• An indirect inguinal hernia is commonly associated with a patent processus vaginalis, which can result in a fluctuating hydrocele.
• Congenital hydrocephalus is primarily caused by accumulation of which substance?
• Which drug should be avoided in G6PD deficiency to prevent hemolysis?
• The mechanism of action of continuous GnRH agonists involves suppression of which hormones?
• Which genetic abnormality is associated with DiGeorge syndrome?
• Lesions involving Broca's or Wernicke's areas are associated with which visual field defect?
• Erythropoietin-stimulating agents are used to treat which type of anemia?
• In carbon monoxide poisoning, which statement is true about PaO2?
• Adrenal crisis presents with
• Carbamazepine is especially effective for which condition?
• Cocaine's mechanism of action is best described as which of the following?
• Which of the following is a characteristic presentation of PCP intoxication?
• Zinc deficiency commonly presents with which of the following?
• Nitrates are contraindicated in which condition?
• Achalasia is associated with which change in LES tone?
• Which enzyme is elevated in polymyositis?
• Right brain lesions are more likely to produce which behavior change?
• Which of the following is NOT typically part of MEN1?
• In suspected CMV mononucleosis, which finding distinguishes it from EBV mononucleosis?
• Which expression represents the equation for the Number Needed to Treat (NNT)?
• Which medication is commonly used to control adrenergic symptoms in hyperthyroidism?
• Somatostatin is secreted by which cells?
• Which gestational window is most critical for neural tube teratogenicity?
• In tertiary syphilis, which vascular complication arises due to obliteration of the vasa vasorum?
• Activation of alpha-1 receptors in the bladder causes which action?
• Anterolateral fracture of the humerus commonly injures which nerve, often presenting with thumb drop?
• Antistreptolysin O (ASO) titer is typically elevated in which condition?
• HELLP syndrome is defined by which triad?
• Which cytokine, via serine kinase, impairs insulin-dependent glucose uptake?
• Myopathy risk is increased when statins are used with which lipid-lowering agent?
• Excessive diuretic use can lead to prerenal AKI, typically accompanied by which laboratory change?
• Which drug is a direct thrombin inhibitor?
• Which factor is produced by Sertoli cells to inhibit Müllerian duct development?
• Which structure primarily controls urinary continence?
• Vertebral subluxation due to cervical spine involvement in rheumatoid arthritis can cause which type of paralysis?
• Renal osteodystrophy can present with which bone lesion associated with secondary hyperparathyroidism?
• Which enzyme catalyzes the conversion of DOPA to dopamine?
• Scurvy results from defective hydroxylation of which amino acids in collagen?
• Which drug is a melatonin receptor agonist used for insomnia?
• Which anti-TB drug can cause red-green color blindness?
• Methimazole's mechanism of action is to:
• Down syndrome can result from a balanced translocation involving which chromosomes in a parent?
• What is first-line treatment for symptomatic sarcoidosis?
• Macular sparing in homonymous hemianopia indicates a lesion in contralateral Occipital lobe (PCA)
• Positive Predictive Value (PPV) is defined as which ratio?
• Which diuretic is potassium-sparing and used in CHF to reduce ventricular remodeling?
• The efferent limb of the pupillary light reflex travels in which cranial nerve?
• TSH's primary action on the thyroid is to:
• Reticulocytes on peripheral blood smear are best described as which?
• In thyrotoxicosis due to exogenous T4 administration, what is the expected histologic change in the thyroid?
• Vincristine works by which mechanism?
• Long-standing ASD is most closely associated with which pulmonary change?
• Which of the following is NOT a typical effect of beta-2 receptor activation?
• During lobar pneumonia, red hepatization occurs around which days after onset?
• What is the primary mechanism of action of digoxin?
• Which statement best describes alpha-2 receptor activation in the CNS?
• Which immunodeficiency is characterized by eczema, thrombocytopenia, and combined T and B cell dysfunction?
• Which type of murmurs typically increase in intensity with inspiration?
• Increased dopamine in the substantia nigra is most associated with which disease?
• Activation of beta-1 adrenergic receptors in cardiac myocytes increases intracellular calcium primarily through which signaling cascade?
• Magnesium status and PTH: which statement is true based on the described relationship?
• Which sex predominates in primary biliary cholangitis?
• Lymphocyte-predominant Hodgkin lymphoma is characterized by which cells and marker?
• Which cardiomyopathy is commonly associated with Friedreich ataxia?
• NF1 tumor suppressor mutations predispose to which cancer?
• Nephrotic syndrome commonly seen in children?
• Which adverse effects are more characteristic of high-potency typical antipsychotics?
• Which finding is characteristic of acute myeloid leukemia on morphology?
• The Arcuate nucleus of the hypothalamus produces which neurotransmitter?
• In Graves disease, which autoantibody stimulates the TSH receptor leading to hyperthyroidism?
• Which lysosomal storage disease causes optic manifestations?
• Which clinical features characterize Acute Intermittent Porphyria?
• Brown-Sequard syndrome results from hemisection of the spinal cord and classically presents with which pattern?
• In addition to seizures, gabapentin is commonly used to treat which type of pain?
• Which item is identified as a tool to prevent oversights and communication failures?
• Which drug has dopamine D2 receptor antagonism and is used as an antipsychotic and antiemetic?
• Which of the following is NOT a P450 inducer?
• The histopathology of cellular acute transplant rejection is best described as which finding?
• Biliary emesis in neonates can be caused by which combination of conditions?
• In the PIP2 signaling pathway, what are the two second messengers produced by phospholipase C that lead to PKC activation?
• In Wallerian degeneration, which glial response forms a barrier to axonal regrowth?
• Which tumor suppressor gene is mutated in Wilms tumor?
• Staphylococcus aureus virulence factor that binds the Fc portion of IgG is:
• Which breast cancer subtype is associated with BRCA1 and medullary features?
• Which drug acts as a muscarinic receptor agonist to promote detrusor contraction for bladder emptying?
• Uncal herniation is a form of transtentorial herniation that most directly compresses which cranial nerve?
• S4 gallop is most consistent with which change in left ventricular function?
• Diffuse large B-cell lymphoma is associated with which genetic alterations and often obliterates architecture?
• Which inhaled agent is listed as an antidote for nitrate toxicity and generates methemoglobin?
• Gout is most commonly associated with which type of kidney stone?
• Which substrates form delta-aminolevulinic acid (ALA) in heme synthesis?
• What is the mechanism of action of alteplase (tPA) in clot dissolution?
• Which condition is associated with a cherry-red macula?
• What supplement should be given with isoniazid to prevent neuropathy?
• Which factor principally stimulates aldosterone secretion from the zona glomerulosa?
• Somatostatin release is increased by which stimuli?
• Which class of drug is used to treat restless legs syndrome?
• Hemorrhagic infarcts are typically what color, and what explains this appearance?
• Buprenorphine has which pharmacologic property that can precipitate withdrawal in opioid-dependent patients?
• Primary sclerosing cholangitis is associated with an increased risk of which malignancy?
• Which combination of features is classic for cystic fibrosis?
• Which tumors are associated with Von Hippel-Lindau disease?
• Spironolactone has antiandrogen effects and can be used in hormonal management of hirsutism. Which statement best reflects its action?
• What is the characteristic murmur of a ventricular septal defect?
• A lesion of the middle cerebral artery classically causes weakness most in which region on the contralateral side?
• 21-hydroxylase deficiency in congenital adrenal hyperplasia presents with
• Which signaling pathway is constitutively activated in polycythemia vera due to JAK2 mutation?
• Which condition increases the A-a gradient due to diffusion impairment?
• Which statement is true about folate deficiency?
• Which is a common adverse effect of loop diuretics?
• Which nerve branches of CN X are associated with the 4th and the 6th pharyngeal arches, respectively?
• Osteoma most characteristically arises in which region?
• Which shock type is associated with decreased systemic vascular resistance?
• Biotin serves as a cofactor for which of the following carboxylases?
• Which structure is a component of the basal ganglia?
• What is the dose-limiting adverse effect of amitriptyline?
• What histologic finding is described 12–24 hours after infarction?
• Carcinoid syndrome most commonly arises from which type of tumor?
• Which of the following is a classic example of normochromic, hemolytic intrinsic anemia due to an enzymatic defect?
• Classic watershed regions of the GI tract include:
• Which cytokine pathway is central to macrophage activation in tuberculosis?
• Gout results from which primary mechanism?
• Apple peel deformity is a classic finding in which type of intestinal atresia?
• Which mediator is primarily released during IgE-mediated anaphylaxis?
• Which symptom indicates pancreatic exocrine insufficiency in chronic pancreatitis?
• Which antibiotic class is listed among QT-prolonging drugs in the notes?
• Pheochromocytoma commonly presents with which triad of symptoms?
• Citrate used in stored blood products chelates calcium, resulting in decreased calcium. Which statement best reflects this effect?
• Pantothenic acid deficiency is classically associated with which symptom?
• Which hormone inhibits gastric acid secretion?
• Flutamide inhibits androgen receptor binding. This mechanism is used to prevent osteosclerotic bone lesions from metastasis of which cancer?
• Which serious adverse effect is associated with lamotrigine?
• Hemochromatosis frequently causes arthropathy involving which joints?
• Which antiviral is used to treat HSV-1 encephalitis?
• Adverse effect of topical corticosteroids is
• Osteoporosis is characterized by which change in trabecular bone?
• The first-line therapy for an acute gout attack is which of the following?
• The subthalamic nucleus predominantly uses which neurotransmitter as its excitatory signal?
• Beta-2 receptor activation in the uterus produces which effect?
• Gastrin release is stimulated by which of the following?
• Indirect inguinal hernia results from incomplete obliteration of which embryologic structure?
• Tumor Lysis Syndrome commonly causes which electrolyte abnormality leading to arrhythmias?
• Which drug is an endothelin receptor antagonist used to treat PAH?
• Which adverse effect is commonly associated with adenosine administration?
• Type 1 diabetes mellitus is characterized by autoimmune destruction of which pancreatic cells?
• In Acute Tubular Necrosis, which urinary sediment finding is most characteristic?
• Granulosa cells in the ovary predominantly produce which hormone?
• Colon cancer most commonly arises in which region of the colon?
• Which vaccine yields IgG only against poliovirus?
• A common complication of chronic venous insufficiency due to varicose veins is what?
• Metoclopramide is used to treat which conditions?
• Whipple disease involves infection of which sites and shows which histopathologic features?
• Deep brain stimulation for Parkinson disease most commonly targets which nucleus?
• Which early clinical features are typical of systemic lupus erythematosus in a young woman?
• Which complication is common in homocystinuria?
• Which agents can inhibit the conversion of T4 to T3?
• What is the 95% confidence interval equation for a mean?
• Which option lists the tumors classically associated with MEN1?
• Lobar pneumonia is characterized by which gross-pathologic change?
• Parathyroid hormone effects on renal calcium and phosphate handling: which statement is true?
• Besides adenosine, which molecule contributes to regulation of coronary blood flow?
• A stroke of the anterior cerebral artery typically causes contralateral weakness most in which region?
• Which skin finding is classic in inflammatory breast cancer?
• Which statement best describes the mechanism of action of both bismuth subsalicylate and sucralfate?
• The hepatitis B genome is best described as?
• Which intracerebral vascular lesion is characterized by dilated, thin-walled vascular channels and is prone to hemorrhage?
• The pentose phosphate pathway is predominantly located in which cellular compartment?
• Fasciculations are most characteristic of which type of lesion?
• Which muscles are derived from the first pharyngeal arch?
• Graves disease pathophysiology involves which autoantibody?
• In upright lungs, which region has greater ventilation?
• Which lymph node is not typically a drainage site for the urinary bladder?
• Ibutilide is a member of which class?
• Which tumor is most characteristic of MEN2A?
• Which thalamic nucleus is associated with hearing?
• Which feature of mature tRNA is the site for covalent attachment of amino acids?
• Which pleural changes are characteristic of asbestos exposure?
• Cidofovir is activated by cellular kinases and does not require viral thymidine kinase for activation.
• Invasive lobular carcinoma is characterized by loss of which cell adhesion molecule?
• Matrix metalloproteinases secreted by atherosclerotic plaques are involved in which process?
• Before initiating statin therapy, which laboratory test should be checked to assess safety?
• Which cofactor is required for bile acid synthesis?
• In giant cell arteritis, which laboratory abnormalities are commonly elevated?
• Binding of thyrotropin-releasing hormone (TRH) to its receptor in pituitary stimulates production of which second messenger?
• Buspirone is used to treat which disorder?
• Which ionotropic receptor mediates immediate flux of Na, Ca, and K?
• Which of the following is NOT a cytochrome P450 substrate?
• Chronic tic disorders differ from Tourette syndrome in that Tourette requires:
• Beta-1 receptor stimulation increases cardiac contractility and heart rate via activation of which second messenger?
• Which diuretic with mineralocorticoid receptor antagonism reduces mortality in severe heart failure?
• Which enzyme in bacteria carries out DNA synthesis with 3' to 5' proofreading exonuclease activity?
• O2-Hgb dissociation right shift is promoted by which conditions?
• Marfan-associated aortic aneurysm involves which histologic change?
• In a typical transamination reaction, which substrates are converted to which products?
• What is the immediate product after heme in bilirubin synthesis?
• Which statement best describes the typical defect in CFTR seen in cystic fibrosis?
• Zenker diverticulum is an example of which type of diverticulum?
• Which clinical features are commonly associated with Norovirus infection and what is the typical duration in developed countries?
• Which condition shows a murmur that increases with inspiration?
• Which statement best describes the Korotkoff sounds used in blood pressure measurement?
• Which antibody is primarily responsible for triggering mast cell degranulation in allergic reactions?
• Desmopressin's effect on urea clearance is to decrease it.
• How does obesity affect expiratory reserve volume (ERV) and functional residual capacity (FRC)?
• The BCR-ABL fusion gene results from which chromosomal translocation?
• ANCA-associated vasculitis serology is typically which?
• Buspirone is characterized by which property?
• Which statement best describes the typical presentation of von Willebrand disease?
• Cholecystokinin release is triggered by which luminal contents?
• Where are B1 receptors located outside the heart, and what is a consequence of activation there?
• Which congenital heart defect is associated with a continuous 'machine-like' murmur?
• Anti-GBM disease is defined by antibodies against which component?
• In the pentose phosphate pathway, glucose-6-phosphate is converted to ribose with production of which reducing equivalent?
• Which medication is commonly used to treat essential tremor?
• Which description best fits schizotypal personality disorder?
• Which medication is NOT used in the management of hypertrophic cardiomyopathy?
• In central diabetes insipidus, administration of desmopressin causes which change in urine osmolality?
• Dobutamine is primarily a selective agonist at which adrenergic receptor?
• Which statement best describes minimal change disease?
• Which antiandrogen is commonly associated with gynecomastia?
• A lesion in the cerebellum typically produces which set of signs in the affected limb?
• Chest radiographs in decompensated heart failure typically show which features?
• During cyclophosphamide therapy, which agent is administered to protect the urinary tract and kidneys from acrolein metabolite–induced toxicity?
• Which adverse effects are associated with pyrazinamide?
• Rheumatoid arthritis characteristically involves which joints of the hands?
• The Locus Coeruleus uses which neurotransmitter as its primary signaling molecule?
• Which of the following is an example of a normochromic, hemolytic extrinsic anemia?
• What is a common cause of SIADH?
• Nitrates raise which intracellular messenger to mediate their effect?
• Which test best distinguishes central from nephrogenic diabetes insipidus?
• Which of the following is a recognized adverse effect of trazodone?
• Fibrates are associated with gallstone risk because they reduce bile acid synthesis by inhibiting cholesterol 7 alpha-hydroxylase.
• Capitation payment models are most commonly associated with which type of plan?
• Nucleotide excision repair primarily addresses bulky DNA lesions such as thymine dimers. Which lesion is typically repaired by NER?
• Ionizing radiation causes cellular damage mainly by generating reactive oxygen species that cause which form of DNA damage?
• The red nucleus is primarily involved in which function?
• During metabolic acidosis, which process contributes to new bicarbonate generation?
• Kimmelstiel-Wilson nodules are a hallmark of which renal condition?
• Acoustic schwannoma most characteristically arises at which anatomical site?
• Cilostazol is used to treat claudication and has what primary mechanism?
• Waterhouse-Friedrichsen syndrome refers to adrenal hemorrhage due to septicemia most classically associated with
• Cluster headaches are more common in which gender?
• Which skull lesion is most likely a benign bone tumor?
• Which murmur is described as a diastolic decrescendo murmur with widened pulse pressure?
• Nasopharyngeal carcinoma is strongly associated with EBV infection.
• Which combination of findings is typical for SCID?
• Which form is the active metabolite of vitamin D produced in the kidney?
• On what day does a blastocyst typically implant into the uterine wall?
• Which patients are most at risk for Pneumocystis jirovecii pneumonia?
• Wrinkling of the skin is associated with which of the following changes?
• Which sequence correctly lists the adrenal cortex zones from outermost to innermost?
• Scarlet fever is caused by infection with which organism?
• Which lesion is most commonly associated with a midline shift due to a substantial intracerebral hematoma?
• Atrial myxoma can produce a murmur most like which valvular lesion?
• Osteoarthritis commonly involves which joints?
• Graft-versus-host disease is classically mediated by which hypersensitivity and affects which tissues?
• Frontal bossing and bowing of the femur and tibia are classic features of which pediatric bone disorder associated with vitamin D deficiency?
• Besides BPH, alpha-1 blockers are commonly used to treat which condition?
• Which autoantibody is most specific for rheumatoid arthritis?
• Beta-blockers in the kidney primarily act to:
• Spironolactone use in congestive heart failure is associated with which of the following effects?
• Necrolytic migratory erythema is classically associated with tumors of which pancreatic cell type?
• Which combination of factors is strongly associated with transitional cell carcinoma of the bladder?
• Which feature is characteristic of Mycosis Fungoides, a cutaneous T-cell lymphoma?
• Parvovirus B19 genome type?
• In congenital hypothyroidism, which outcome is preventable with early diagnosis and treatment?
• Birbeck granules are pathognomonic for which disease?
• In Turner syndrome, ovarian failure results in which hormonal pattern?
• Which drug combination should be avoided in depression treatment due to interaction risk?
• In an HIV-infected patient with a ring-enhancing brain lesion, which organism is most likely responsible?
• Congenital rubella is caused by which type of virus?
• Which lipid abnormality is commonly seen in nephrotic syndrome?
• TB reactivation is listed as an adverse effect of which rheumatoid arthritis therapy?
• In schizoaffective disorder, mood symptoms are present for a substantial portion of the illness in addition to psychotic symptoms. Which option best states this criterion?
• Giantism is caused by excess growth hormone secreted by the pituitary gland. IGF-1 is primarily produced by which organ in response to GH?
• What is a characteristic feature of ankylosing spondylitis?
• Krabbe disease is caused by deficiency of which enzyme?
• Which statement is true for IgA nephropathy?
• Which of the following is a common risk factor for aortic dissection?
• Which dopaminergic pathway is most closely associated with negative symptoms in schizophrenia?
• Carnitine deficiency impairs which metabolic process?
• Which statement about radiodensity of gallstones is true?
• Co-administration of allopurinol with azathioprine requires consideration because allopurinol inhibits which enzyme, increasing toxicity of the other drug?
• Failure of recanalization during development is a mechanism for which condition?
• Mantle cell lymphoma is commonly associated with which translocation?
• Which of the following is an example of polygenic inheritance?
• Which antidepressant is associated with minimal sexual dysfunction?
• IgE-independent anaphylaxis can involve activation of which intracellular signaling pathways?
• Reactive arthritis can be triggered by infection with which organism?
• Subdural hematoma typically results from rupture of which vessels?
• Glutathione reductase deficiency results in an inability to use NADPH in the PPP. This presentation most closely resembles which deficiency?
• Which organism is a leading cause of bacterial meningitis in adults?
• In idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis, what change occurs in alveolar type II pneumocytes?
• Which clinical finding is commonly associated with digoxin toxicity?
• Which serologic test for syphilis remains positive for life after infection?
• Total blindness of the ipsilateral eye results from lesion of which structure?
• Which cardiomyopathy is commonly associated with Friedreich ataxia?
• Where does the CAP-Cyclic AMP complex bind relative to the Lac operon promoter?
• Which hormone increases calcium reabsorption in the distal convoluted tubule?
• Aortic dystrophic calcification is most closely linked to which process?
• Which constellation of findings is characteristic of Plummer-Vinson syndrome?
• HOX genes encode which type of molecule?
• Cystic hygroma is a feature associated with Turner syndrome.
• Potter sequence is associated with which features?
• In vitamin D deficiency, the histologic bone change is the accumulation of which matrix component?
• The lateral spinothalamic tract is primarily responsible for conveying which sensation?
• A fungus ball in a pre-existing lung cavity is most accurately described as which of the following?
• Which agent is a proteasome inhibitor used in the treatment of multiple myeloma?
• The enzyme that converts Protoporphyrin IX to heme is?
• Which antiretroviral is commonly used to prevent vertical transmission of HIV during intrapartum delivery and in newborns?
• Diffuse systemic sclerosis is associated with which autoantibody?
• Which agent targets estrogen receptor in bone as a selective estrogen receptor modulator?
• Pineal region masses commonly cause which complication due to obstruction of CSF flow?
• Opioid adverse effects include biliary colic due to contraction of which structure?
• Hereditary spherocytosis is most reliably diagnosed by which laboratory finding?
• BRCA tumor suppressor mutations are strongly associated with which cancer?
• Reed-Sternberg cells originate from which lineage?
• Transmembrane domains are typically composed of which type of amino acids?
• Thiamine deficiency causes beriberi. Which statement best describes the dry form?
• Interstitial pneumonia primarily involves which anatomic structure?
• Berger disease is another name for which disease?
• Which therapy is used to accelerate fetal lung maturation in suspected surfactant deficiency?
• What genetic mutation underlies Paroxysmal Nocturnal Hemoglobinuria?
• Goodpasture pattern of immunopathology is which?
• Which presenting symptom is common in pancreatic adenocarcinoma?
• Which sensation is NOT carried by the dorsal column-medial lemniscus pathway?
• Staining for CD31/PECAM-1 is most characteristic of which tumor type?
• Which phrase best describes confounding bias?
• What is the most common mutation in the CFTR gene causing cystic fibrosis?
• In hyper IgM syndrome due to CD40L deficiency, which statement is true?
• Which description best matches the mechanism by which ezetimibe lowers cholesterol?
• First-line pharmacologic treatment for narcolepsy is which agent?
• Which inhaled anticholinergic is used to treat COPD and has minimal CNS penetration due to its quaternary ammonium structure?
• Cholestyramine lowers LDL by binding bile acids. Which accompanying lipid change is typically seen?
• PAS-positive macrophages containing glycoprotein are a histologic hallmark of which disease?
• Pepsin is secreted by which cells?
• What is the main effect of ADH in the collecting duct?
• 11β-hydroxylase deficiency CAH typically presents with
• In primary hyperaldosteronism, which finding is most characteristic?
• In osteoarthritis management, which class of medications is commonly used for pain relief?
• Ethylene glycol poisoning can cause which kidney injury via glycolic and oxalic acids?
• Ectopic pregnancy occurs after
• NO in the gastrointestinal tract mediates relaxation of which structure?
• RET oncogene is associated with which cancer?
• Flow in the renal bed is proportional to the radius of the vessels raised to the fourth power. Which expression correctly states this relationship?
• Chediak-Higashi syndrome is due to which of the following?
• The major adverse effect of bupropion is which of the following?
• Lymphatic drainage of the anal canal distal to the dentate line is primarily to which nodes?
• Adenovirus genome type and associated syndrome?
• Gastrointestinal irritation can cause release of which neurotransmitter leading to nausea?
• ALK rearrangements define a subset of which cancer?
• In hemolytic uremic syndrome, microthrombi in small vessels lead to which kidney finding?
• Which condition is an example of obstructive shock?
• Colitis-associated colorectal cancer typically presents with which histologic pattern?
• Which cholinesterase inhibitor crosses the blood-brain barrier and is used to reverse atropine overdose?
• Thymic abnormalities are commonly associated with myasthenia gravis. Which thymic condition is most frequently linked?
• Base excision repair is initiated by removal of damaged bases by which enzyme?
• Which treatment regimen is used for Kawasaki disease?
• During prostatectomy, which vessels are ligated to stop hemorrhage?
• In systolic heart failure, which drug classes are beneficial?
• Which statement about ADH and the collecting duct is correct?
• CCl4 hepatotoxicity results from which mechanism?
• Lynch syndrome predisposes to cancers in which organs?
• IgG is located on what cell?
• Which movement disorder is commonly associated with long-term antipsychotic use?
• Which neurotransmitter negatively regulates prolactin secretion from the pituitary?
• Melanoma commonly expresses which calcium-binding protein that serves as a diagnostic marker?
• In halothane-induced hepatotoxicity, which coagulation parameter is often elevated?
• In Wilson's disease, basal ganglia involvement can produce which movement disorder?
• Jejunum/Ileum atresia is classically associated with which of the following etiologies or appearances?
• Penicillin prophylaxis for scarlet fever primarily prevents which complication?
• Terbinafine exerts antifungal effects by inhibiting which enzyme?
• Bile acid malabsorption occurs with disease of which intestinal segment?
• Which medication is an example of a proton pump inhibitor?
• Osteochondroma most commonly arises from the metaphysis of long bones. Which region corresponds to the metaphysis?
• Renal involvement in Infective Endocarditis is most commonly due to which mechanism?
• Carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA) is best described as which type of molecule?
• In Maple Syrup Urine Disease, management includes restricting which amino acids?
• Antidiuretic hormone increases water permeability of the collecting duct by promoting insertion of what into the apical membrane?
• What cell type predominates in the brain at 24-72 hours after ischemic stroke?
• Which genes have been associated with bronchioloalveolar carcinoma?
• Growth hormone signaling leading to growth primarily involves which pathway?
• In primary hyperparathyroidism, which of the following lab patterns is typical?
• In hypothyroid myopathy, which finding describes the delayed relaxation of tendons?
• HbA2 is composed of which globin chains?
• GLUT1 is mainly expressed in which tissues?
• Activation of the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system in heart failure is associated with release of which hormone?
• Within the basal ganglia, which component is primarily associated with cognitive aspects of movement control?
• Which of the following can cause hypogonadotropic hypogonadism?
• Which of the following is a hallmark feature of serotonin syndrome?
• In patients with systolic heart failure, what is a common limiting factor for dosing ACE inhibitors?
• Which statement identifies the virus associated with confluent rash and SSPE?
• Small cell lung carcinoma commonly expresses which marker?
• Amniotic fluid embolism is most closely associated with which event?
• Demyelination in multiple sclerosis primarily results in which of the following effects on nerve conduction?
• Left optic tract lesion would cause which type of visual field defect?
• Nonobstructive hydronephrosis is most commonly caused by which condition?
• Osteoblastoma most often involves which skeletal region?
• Peripheral neuropathy described as stocking-and-glove tingling is an adverse effect primarily associated with which class of antiretroviral drugs?
• Upper rectum drains to which lymph nodes?
• Which chromosomal abnormality is associated with cleft lip/palate and omphalocele?
• Ethambutol exerts its antimycobacterial effect by which mechanism?
• Alpha-hemolysis (partial green coloration) on blood agar is typically seen with which organisms?
• At high doses, nitrates also decrease which hemodynamic parameter?
• Polyarteritis nodosa is associated with infection by which virus?
• Which drug is a selective B1 blocker known to prolong the PR interval?
• Which hormone has a structure most similar to thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH)?
• Activation of alpha-1 receptors in the eye produces which effect?
• The primary intestinal effect of vitamin D is to increase the absorption of calcium and phosphate.
• In post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis, electron microscopy reveals which finding and immunofluorescence reveals which pattern?
• Insulin resistance can be explained by TNF-Alpha mediated serine phosphorylation of which component, leading to reduced signaling?
• Congenital torticollis can result from which obstetric scenario?
• Which finding is classically seen in Duchenne muscular dystrophy?
• Von Willebrand factor forms complexes with which coagulation factor?
• Which statement best describes the function of the Bcl-2 protein?
• Vesicoureteral reflux in children is associated with which complication?
• Which of the following statements best describes a common choice for GAD with slow onset and low abuse potential?
• A toxoid booster is used to enhance immunity by presenting what type of antigen?
• Rheumatoid arthritis most commonly involves which hand joints?
• Internal hemorrhoids are typically painless and located above the dentate line.
• Which finding is characteristic of neurofibromatosis type 1?
• What is the first-line therapy for giant cell arteritis?
• The teres minor is innervated by which nerve?
• The 95% confidence interval formula for a mean is
• Crohn disease predisposes to a specific type of kidney stone due to fat malabsorption. Which stone is most commonly associated?
• Which of the following is a known adverse effect of thiazide diuretics such as chlorthalidone?
• Histology of ectopic pregnancy may show
• Binding of thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) to its receptor activates which second messenger to stimulate T3/T4 synthesis?
• The HIV envelope precursor gp160 is encoded by which gene?
• Milrinone is best described as which class of drug?
• In a typical transamination reaction, which amino acid donates the amino group?
• Placenta percreta is characterized by invasion through the myometrium to which structure?
• Wilson disease is caused by mutations in which gene?
• Elevated homocysteine is seen in deficiencies of which vitamins?
• A deficiency of which vitamin can cause peripheral neuropathy, seizures, and sideroblastic anemia?
• In severe hypertriglyceridemia due to LPL deficiency, which retinal finding may be observed?
• Which medication inhibits the constriction of the efferent arteriole by reducing Ang II activity?
• In Gaucher disease, which lipid accumulates?
• Annular pancreas encircles which structure?
• In obstructive shock, which hemodynamic changes are expected?
• Which adhesion molecule on the endothelium mediates neutrophil rolling during acute inflammation?
• Diverticula are outpouchings involving which GI wall layers?
• Which protein is a marker for neuroendocrine secretory granules and is commonly used to identify adrenal medulla cells?
• Sarcoidosis is often associated with elevated levels of which enzyme?
• Vitamin B12 deficiency can cause demyelination of which central nervous system tracts?
• Which disease is classically associated with diarrhea and pneumonia and is often difficult to Gram stain?
• Which RNA polymerase transcribes ribosomal RNA in eukaryotic cells?
• Cisplatin exerts its anticancer effect primarily by forming crosslinks at which site?
• Homonymous hemianopia with macular sparing localizes to which structure?
• Which finding is part of the Jones criteria for acute rheumatic fever?
• Which statement is true about Down syndrome translocation?
• Anastrozole is what type of drug?
• Placenta percreta can invade which adjacent organ?
• Which topical vitamin D analog is used to treat psoriasis and inhibits keratinocyte proliferation?
• Acute pulmonary embolism typically causes which acid-base disturbance due to hyperventilation from hypoxemia?
• In pulmonary arterial hypertension, which pathophysiologic change contributes to increased pulmonary vascular resistance?
• Co-administration of ACE inhibitors with spironolactone increases the risk of which electrolyte abnormality?
• Which urinary metabolites are elevated in pheochromocytoma?
• The retinal appearance in central retinal artery occlusion is best described as which?
• Vitamin E deficiency most classically causes which condition?
• An aortic fistula most commonly communicates from the aorta to which cardiac chamber?
• Which therapy improves height in Turner syndrome and signals via the JAK/STAT pathway?
• Which H2 blocker is associated with gynecomastia due to antiandrogenic effects?
• Craniopharyngioma arises from which embryologic structure?
• Coagulase function in Staphylococcus aureus is to:
• How long must symptoms be present to diagnose Major Depressive Disorder?
• What is a therapeutic agent used in hypertensive emergency as noted?
• Serum sickness is mediated by immune complexes that activate complement, representing which hypersensitivity type?
• Dandy-Walker malformation is classically defined by which combination of findings?
• Which part of the conduction system has the fastest conduction velocity?
• Which of the following drugs is a selective beta-2 adrenergic agonist?
• Gastric inhibitory peptide (GIP) is released from K cells and has what effect on insulin?
• 5-alpha reductase deficiency typically presents with external female genitalia at birth and masculinization at puberty. Which statement best describes this condition?
• Which sequence correctly represents bilirubin formation from heme to urobilinogen?
• The metanephric mesoderm gives rise to which structures?
• Which description correctly characterizes Hepatitis E virus genome and envelope?
• Which description best defines capitation in health insurance?
• GLP-1 receptor agonists have what effect on gastric emptying?
• Which vitamin acts as a cofactor for dopamine beta-hydroxylase, the enzyme that converts dopamine to norepinephrine?
• In diabetic peripheral neuropathy, ischemic nerve damage is associated with hyalinization of which vascular structure?
• The arcuate nucleus of the hypothalamus is associated with secretion of which pair?
• Which condition is most likely to yield a fixed splitting of S2 on auscultation?
• Isoproterenol acts as a nonselective beta-adrenergic agonist. Which of the following best describes its hemodynamic effects?
• Diphtheria toxin is most similar to which toxin from another organism?
• Which statement about polygenic inheritance is false?
• Memantine is used in Alzheimer's disease and is which type of drug?
• The pouch of Douglas, a rectouterine pouch, is located between which structures?
• Which glucose transporter is primarily expressed in adipose tissue and skeletal muscle and is regulated by insulin?
• During the axonal reaction to injury, which morphological change occurs in the neuron?
• In adults, Parvovirus B19 infection commonly presents with which symbolptom?
• Which type of inguinal hernia is more common in children?
• Leukocoria, the white pupillary reflex, is a classic presenting sign of which pediatric tumor?
• Which class of drugs provides rapid symptomatic relief in BPH by relaxing prostatic and bladder neck smooth muscle?
• Which finding is characteristic of alkaptonuria?
• Which statement about second-generation antipsychotics is true?
• Adenosine is used to treat PSVT by blocking conduction in which cardiac structure?
• An S3 can be a normal finding in which situations?
• Lesion in which hypothalamic region is most likely to cause obesity?
• Osteogenesis imperfecta is caused by a defect in which collagen type?
• Which of the following is a recognized cause of acute pancreatitis?
• Which amino acid is used by the kidney to excrete acid?
• Which symptom is commonly associated with primary biliary cholangitis?
• Which chromosomal translocation characteristically involves c-myc in Burkitt lymphoma?
• Craniopharyngioma appearance includes which feature?
• The Raphe nuclei primarily use which neurotransmitter?
• In obstructive hydronephrosis, where is the classic site of narrowing?
• Which agent is an irreversible nonselective alpha-adrenergic antagonist?
• Which enzyme is inhibited by Selegiline?
• Rh(D) incompatibility involves antibodies of which immunoglobulin class?
• What class of drugs is used to improve neuromuscular transmission in myasthenia gravis?
• Which cardiovascular anomaly is commonly seen in Turner syndrome?
• Which hormones are elevated due to a renin-secreting tumor?
• Hypospadias results from failure of fusion of which embryologic structures?
• Adenomyosis is characterized by
• An adverse effect commonly associated with SSRIs?
• Which signaling pathway mediates the actions of IGF-1 in growth in response to GH?
• Which histologic feature is associated with acute HAV infection?
• Cholelithiasis dissolves with which agent?
• Subarachnoid hemorrhage commonly involves which arterial system?
• Bladder drains to which lymph nodes?
• Which alveolar epithelial cell proliferates after injury and can differentiate into Type I pneumocytes?
• Erb-Duchenne palsy classically results from injury to which region of the brachial plexus?
• Which antibiotic is commonly used to treat MRSA infections?
• Which hernia passes through the femoral canal?
• Marginal zone lymphoma is associated with which translocation?
• Which quartet of factors is described by the Four Fs and increases risk for cholesterol gallstones?
• Atropine used to treat myocardial infarction may cause which adverse effect?
• Activation of the PI3K/Akt pathway promotes glycogen synthesis via activation of which enzyme?
• Kegel exercises strengthen which pelvic floor muscle group?
• Secretin release is primarily triggered by which luminal condition?
• In Wilson disease, copper accumulation can cause oxidative damage leading to which hematologic complication?
• Treatment for malignant hyperthermia includes which drug?
• RRR is equal to 1 minus which measure?
• The chromosomal translocation t(11;22) is associated with which tumor?
• Classic deficiency symptoms of Pellagra (diarrhea, dermatitis, dementia) are due to deficiency of which vitamin?
• The angular gyrus is located in which lobe?
• In catecholamine synthesis, tyrosine is first converted to which compound?
• Metyrapone testing primarily assesses the function of which axis by monitoring ACTH response?
• Which description best characterizes microcytic hypochromic anemia?
• In myocardial infarction, loss of contractility persists for approximately how long after ischemia?
• In muscular dystrophy due to dystrophin deficiency, which histopathologic change is commonly observed?
• Which drug is an NNRTI?
• Which mechanism commonly leads to hydrocephalus in the setting of hemorrhage due to impaired CSF absorption?
• During fetal life, what does the ductus arteriosus do?
• Which drug is a classical P450 substrate with a narrow therapeutic index?
• Onion-skin concentric thickening of arteries is most characteristic of which type of arteriolosclerosis?
• Upper quadrantanopia produced by a lesion in which lobe?
• The suffix used for proton pump inhibitors is which?
• Which nerve provides innervation to the infraspinatus muscle, enabling external rotation of the shoulder?
• Follicular lymphoma is associated with which translocation?
• The thin, squamous alveolar epithelial cell that forms the primary gas diffusion barrier is which cell type?
• Which agent is used to treat cyanide poisoning by converting hemoglobin to methemoglobin?
• Charcot-Leyden crystals in sputum indicate breakdown of which cells?
• Which folate-derived cofactor donates the methyl group for the remethylation of homocysteine to methionine?
• In the propionyl-CoA pathway, what is the immediate product formed from propionyl-CoA before entering the TCA cycle?
• Specificity is defined as which ratio?
• In COPD management, supplemental oxygen is indicated for which of the following?
• VHL tumor suppressor mutations predispose to which cancer?
• Which chromosomal abnormality is associated with low-set ears and a small mandible?
• In pulmonary arterial hypertension associated with CREST syndrome, which vascular change is seen in the pulmonary arterioles?
• Nitrates cause smooth muscle relaxation via which sequence?
• Cherry red macula is most characteristic of which condition?
• Chlamydia forms cytoplasmic inclusion bodies in which cells?
• In early Lyme disease, erythema migrans is typically treated with which antibiotic?
• Mutations in which genes are linked to early-onset familial Alzheimer's disease?
• Nonobstructive hydronephrosis is most commonly due to which condition?
• Which radiographic finding is characteristic of necrotizing enterocolitis in neonates?
• Resistance to HAART is most commonly due to which factor?
• Renal cell carcinoma commonly metastasizes via which route?
• Pericardial inflammation following MI is due to an inflammatory reaction over transmural necrosis and commonly presents with what symptom?
• Fenoldopam therapy in hypertensive emergency also increases what renal effect?
• Schistocytes on a peripheral smear are most characteristic of which category of disorders?
• Antiphospholipid antibody syndrome is most classically associated with which combination?
• Which combination is characteristic of nephrotic syndrome?
• If the efferent arteriole is constricted, filtration fraction tends to:
• Secretin is secreted by which cells?
• Vitamin A toxicity teratogenic outcomes include which defects?
• Prolonged obstruction of the gallbladder causes deficiency of which type of vitamins?
• Cidofovir is activated by cellular kinases and does not require viral thymidine kinase for activation.
• Miraviroc is what kind of inhibitor?
• Lumbar puncture is classically performed between which vertebral levels?
• Chronic hypoxia from obstructive sleep apnea can cause pulmonary hypertension and right-sided heart failure; which hematologic change is associated?
• Osteosclerotic bone lesions are most commonly due to metastasis from which primary tumor?
• Which antibiotic is considered a preferred treatment option for initial Clostridioides difficile infection due to lower recurrence rates?
• The femoral nerve is commonly injured in which type of injury?
• Which statement about hemolysis patterns on blood agar is true?
• What is the main purpose of a booster dose in vaccination?
• Polyhydramnios is most likely due to which fetal condition?
• Which leukemia is classically associated with the Philadelphia chromosome t(9;22)?
• Halogenated inhaled anesthetics have what effect on cerebral blood flow?
• Which feature is characteristic of Alport syndrome?
• Which medication is a non-amphetamine wakefulness-promoting agent used in narcolepsy?
• Which statement best describes thinning of the lateral third of the eyebrows in hypothyroidism?
• Which disease is associated with hypotonia and cherry-red macula?
• Which laboratory finding is characteristic of Ataxia Telangiectasia?
• A horseshoe kidney is classically associated with which condition?
• Which inhaled anticholinergic is used to treat COPD?
• Which finding is characteristic of granulomatosis with polyangiitis?
• Which thalamic nucleus processes somatic sensory information, including pain, temperature, and proprioception?
• ASD can cause which of the following complications?
• Guillain-Barré syndrome is characterized by endoneurial inflammatory infiltrates in myelinated fibers composed primarily of which cells?
• For survival in certain ductus-dependent congenital heart diseases such as transposition of the great arteries, which agent is required to keep the ductus arteriosus open?
• Follicular lymphoma is most commonly associated with overexpression of which protein due to a chromosomal translocation?
• Trendelenburg gait indicates injury to which nerve?
• What histologic finding is typical from 2 weeks to 2 months after infarction?
• The APC/B catenin tumor suppressor is commonly mutated in which cancer?
• Which statement accurately describes standard deviation rules in a normal distribution?
• Thymoma is classically associated with which autoimmune condition?
• Deamination of cytosine, adenine, and guanine in DNA can be promoted by exposure to dietary nitrites. Which option lists these factors in the correct order?
• IL-5 stimulates growth and activation of which cells?
• Hartnup disease predisposes to deficiency of which vitamin due to defective absorption of neutral amino acids?
• Imatinib acts as an inhibitor of which tyrosine kinase?
• Vitamin E toxicity has been associated with which neonatal condition?
• Aminoglycoside resistance commonly arises from enzymatic modification of the drug by which processes?
• Burkitt lymphoma is commonly associated with which viral association?
• Which virus is classically associated with parotid gland enlargement?
• The nigrostriatal dopaminergic pathway projects from the substantia nigra to which structure?
• Which basal ganglia structure serves as a major output nucleus?
• ALK oncogene is associated with which cancer?
• Which enzyme deficiency causes Lesch-Nyhan syndrome?
• In distributive shock, which hemodynamic profile is observed?
• CA-125 is most commonly associated with which ovarian neoplasm?
• Statins lower cholesterol by inhibiting HMG-CoA reductase. Which of the following is also a known effect on LDL receptors?
• Which structure functions as the primary pacemaker of the heart?
• Beta-blockers reduce renin release by antagonizing which receptor on juxtaglomerular cells?
• The most common intraocular malignant tumor in children is which?
• Which enzyme in bile acid synthesis is inhibited by fibrates?
• In multiple myeloma, the monoclonal immunoglobulin spike most commonly involves which immunoglobulin class?
• Essential fructosuria results from deficiency of which enzyme?
• Crescent formation is characteristic of which syndrome?
• S4 heart sound is best described as which of the following?
• Which symptom is most commonly associated with the adverse effects of nitrate therapy?
• When is pregnancy typically detectable by urine hCG testing?
• Hodgkin lymphoma markers found on Reed-Sternberg cells?
• Which medication inhibits dilation of the afferent arteriole by blocking prostaglandin synthesis?
• In PAH, which mediator is elevated and contributes to vasoconstriction?
• In endometriosis, Danazol inhibits which hormonal surge?
• Transthyretin mutation leads to amyloid deposition and infiltrative cardiomyopathy. What does transthyretin normally carry?
• Azathioprine is activated to 6-mercaptopurine and is inhibited by which enzyme?
• Which supplement is routinely given with isoniazid to prevent neuropathy?
• Which therapy can prevent homocystinuria?
• Which cancer is BRAF inhibitors commonly used to treat?
• Blockade of which receptor by TCAs contributes to sedation and other anticholinergic effects?
• Ataxia telangiectasia is caused by mutations in which gene, involved in DNA repair?
• What is the classic auscultation finding for a patent ductus arteriosus?
• Enteric bacteria synthesize which vitamins?
• Ras proteins require which molecule to become activated?
• In phagocytes, which enzyme complex produces reactive oxygen species as part of the respiratory burst to kill bacteria?
• Lower Quadrantanopsia lesion localizes to which brain region?
• Which chelating agent is responsible for calcium chelation and paresthesias during a transfusion reaction?
• Hereditary hemochromatosis is most commonly associated with mutations in which gene?
• Virilization occurs in which of the following congenital adrenal hyperplasia types?
• Lymphatic drainage of the upper rectum (proximal to the dentate line) is primarily to which lymph nodes?
• Uric acid stones are predisposed by which urine condition?
• Transmembrane domains are enriched in which type of amino acids?
• Cardiac output is defined as which of the following?
• Which statement best reflects SSPE as a late complication of measles infection?
• A renin-secreting juxtaglomerular cell tumor leads to elevated renin and aldosterone, resulting in which electrolyte abnormality?
• Activation of which receptor increases cardiac contractility and heart rate through cAMP?
• Which finding is commonly associated with pancreatic head carcinoma?
• The S3 heart sound occurs during which part of the cardiac cycle?
• Nitric oxide causes vasodilation primarily through which second messenger?
• Which statement about primaquine is correct regarding patient safety?
• Which Class III antiarrhythmic is associated with hypothyroidism as an adverse effect?
• HER2/neu overexpression is most classically associated with which cancer?
• TLS occurs most commonly after treatment of which type of malignancies?
• Von Willebrand factor promotes platelet adhesion by crosslinking which platelet receptor to collagen?
• Paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria is associated with venous thrombosis in which sites?
• Down syndrome screening commonly shows which maternal serum pattern?
• Lactic acidosis can be caused by which of the following conditions?
• Which drug is used to treat CML by inhibiting the BCR-ABL tyrosine kinase?
• Which finding is commonly associated with Ulcerative Colitis on histology?
• Parvovirus B19 infection in individuals with sickle cell disease leads to which complication?
• Which medication is commonly used to treat spasticity in multiple sclerosis?
• Gastroschisis is listed as an example of which intestinal anomaly?
• Leuprolide is a GnRH agonist that inhibits LH release when given continuously. This approach helps prevent osteosclerotic bone lesions from metastasis of which cancer?
• The superior laryngeal nerve is a branch of which cranial nerve?
• Prophylaxis for an Rh-negative mother includes administration of Anti-Rh(D) immunoglobulin at which times?
• Which anatomical variation is a common cause of Thoracic Outlet Syndrome?
• In colonic atresia, which neural plexus is absent?
• Predictive values are dependent on which factor?
• Hypogonadotropic hypogonadism is characterized by low GnRH, FSH, and LH. Which of the following can cause this condition?
• A hereditary neurodegenerative disorder characterized by chorea due to CAG repeat expansion is Huntington's disease.
• Lisch nodules are ocular lesions associated with which disorder?
• Between 10–14 days after infarction, which histologic features are present?
• Klinefelter syndrome karyotype and features include which of the following?
• Which drug is a topoisomerase I inhibitor?
• Germ cell tumors can cause hyperthyroidism via production of hCG that stimulates the TSH receptor. True or false?
• Which finding is associated with rubella infection?
• Which antibiotic regimen is used to treat MRSA infections?
• Acute lung transplant rejection is characterized by which histopathologic finding?
• Cetuximab targets which receptor?
• A persistent urachus presents with discharge from the umbilicus. This remnant is from which embryologic structure?
• Treatment for Graves ophthalmopathy is best with which option?
• The HIV protease gene is encoded by which gene?
• Heparin exerts its anticoagulant effect by potentiating which inhibitor?
• Which complication occurs 5-14 days after MI and can lead to tamponade?
• HIV protease inhibitors are often named with the suffix '-navir' and are associated with which adverse effects?
• Amplification of the MYC oncogene is most commonly associated with which cancer?
• Which antiarrhythmic class is associated with QRS prolongation but not QT prolongation?
• A complication of pelvic surgery may include obstruction of the ureter causing hydronephrosis. Which option best fits this scenario?
• Which HLA allele is associated with reactive arthritis?
• Cutaneous angiosarcoma is a known complication after which breast cancer treatment?
• Which tumor marker is commonly elevated in pancreatic adenocarcinoma?
• In diagnosing EBV infection, which antibody is most characteristic?
• Decreased glucose causes Lac Operon transcription through increased levels of which regulatory complex?
• Secretin influences bile secretion by promoting which of the following?
• Vitiligo is characterized by loss of which epidermal cell type?
• Cori disease results from deficiency of which enzyme?
• Dantrolene works by which mechanism?
• Which lymphoma classically presents with waxing and waning lymphadenopathy and is associated with t(14;18) Bcl2?
• What class of chemotherapy is used to treat transitional cell carcinoma?
• Vitamin B12 is also known as which compound?
• Hartnup disease leads to decreased synthesis of which vitamin due to lack of tryptophan?
• Which diuretic class is associated with increased LDL and triglycerides (dyslipidemia)?
• Which histologic feature is seen 1–3 days after infarction?
• In the upper two-thirds of the esophagus, the most common histology is?
• Bronchiolalveolar carcinoma is characterized by which histologic feature along the alveolar walls?
• Idiopathic Thrombocytopenic Purpura (ITP) is commonly associated with autoantibodies against which platelet glycoprotein complex?
• Which adverse effect is associated with Ethambutol?
• Hypertensive intracerebral hemorrhage most commonly involves which structure?
• Acanthosis Nigricans is most commonly associated with which condition?
• Which prognosis criterion is typically required for hospice care eligibility?
• Buerger's disease (thromboangiitis obliterans) is strongly associated with which risk factor?
• Colic cholelithiasis pain is located at which region of the gallbladder?
• In eczema dermatitis, which histologic feature is most characteristic?
• Conjugate gaze crosses at which structure?
• Which polio vaccine can be shed in feces after administration?
• In the management of renal osteodystrophy, which agent binds phosphate in the gastrointestinal tract?
• What is the mechanism of action of digoxin?
• Which enzyme cleaves fibrinogen to form fibrin during coagulation?
• RSV infection is most common in which age group?
• Which of the following is an adverse effect commonly associated with HAART?
• Which combination of findings defines preeclampsia?
• In diastolic heart failure, which parameter is increased?
• Which diuretic is associated with gynecomastia due to antiandrogen effects?
• Crystal morphology is often described for certain stones. Which crystal shape is characteristic of cystine stones?
• What radiographic sign is classically seen in duodenal atresia?
• Hypercalciuria increases the risk for which type of kidney stone?
• Which motor protein moves cargo toward the plus end of microtubules, generally supporting anterograde transport?
• Ropinirole belongs to which class?
• Which antibiotic is commonly included in H. pylori eradication regimens?
• Blockade of this hormone by antipsychotics can cause galactorrhea?
• In hypovolemic shock, which set of changes is typically observed?
• Which artery is commonly involved in acute mesenteric ischemia due to atrial fibrillation embolus?
• Countertransference occurs when
• Pituitary apoplexy presents with which symptom combination?
• Babesiosis is transmitted by which vector and shows what on blood smear?
• Pompe disease is due to deficiency of which enzyme?
• Goodpasture syndrome features include autoantibodies against basement membrane causing involvement of which organs?
• Which of the following is a non-Hodgkin B-cell lymphoma?
• Which HIV envelope protein forms the transmembrane domain?
• In colitis-associated colorectal cancer, which mutation tends to occur early?
• Which medication decreases afterload?
• Which virus is classically associated with parotid gland swelling?
• A classic radiographic finding in gallstone ileus is pneumobilia, which is which of the following?
• In a patient with aortic stenosis and atrial fibrillation, LV preload is typically:
• Polymyositis presents with which type of weakness?
• In PAH, nitric oxide levels are typically what relative to normal?
• Beta-2 receptor activation mediates which set of effects?
• During cDNA synthesis, the mRNA poly(A) tail would pair with which nucleotide?
• EBV-associated primary CNS lymphoma expresses which B-cell markers?
• Which equation correctly calculates Likelihood Ratio Negative (LR-)?
• CD31, also known as PECAM-1, is best described as which of the following?
• Which statement about BCL-2 is correct?
• Which condition most commonly causes respiratory acidosis?
• Which codons function as stop codons in standard genetic code?
• Which nerve innervates muscles derived from the second pharyngeal arch?
• Fenoldopam used in hypertensive emergency acts as a selective agonist of which receptor?
• Call-Exner bodies are pathognomonic histologic features of which tumor?
• Occlusion of which artery typically produces the visual field defect known as homonymous hemianopsia?
• Zollinger-Ellison syndrome is diagnosed using which test that shows a paradoxical rise in gastrin?
• In Thoracic Outlet Syndrome, compression most commonly involves which structure?
• What is the most common type of lung cancer?
• Which condition is listed as causing hypoventilation in acute settings?
• The Bohr effect describes increased oxygen unloading from hemoglobin in tissues due to which condition?
• Glucagon-like peptide-1 (GLP-1) and glucose-dependent insulinotropic peptide (GIP) are collectively known as what?
• Which congenital GI anomaly is commonly seen in Down syndrome?
• Rifaximin's role in hepatic encephalopathy is to reduce ammonia production by altering gut flora.
• Which organism is commonly associated with catheter-related bloodstream infections?
• Prophylaxis for radiation exposure to iodine-131 uses which agent?
• In children, Parvovirus B19 infection commonly presents as which syndrome?
• Migratory thrombophlebitis is most closely associated with underlying visceral malignancy such as which cancer?
• Which genetic alterations are associated with pancreatic adenocarcinoma?
• Which leukemia is most commonly diagnosed in children?
• Oral contraceptive use reduces the risk of which cancer?
• Subacute granulomatous thyroiditis presents with which etiology?
• Aortic regurgitation is associated with which pattern of left ventricular hypertrophy?
• Integrative hepatitis B infection is associated with increased risk of which complication?
• Reye syndrome is most strongly associated with the use of which during viral illnesses?
• Extrinsic apoptosis activation is triggered by which of the following?
• Which of the following is NOT retroperitoneal?
• Which histologic appearance is associated with dysgerminoma?
• What is the usual mechanism underlying a primary spontaneous pneumothorax?
• Kussmaul sign refers to JVP increasing during inspiration and is most characteristic of which condition?
• Unilateral adrenal adenoma causing ACTH-independent Cushing syndrome leads to atrophy of which adrenal cortex zones in the contralateral gland?
• During 3-5 days after MI, which complication causes ventricular septal rupture?
• In hereditary C1 esterase inhibitor deficiency, which complement component is typically decreased?
• Which immunosuppressant is used to prevent graft rejection by inhibiting mTOR?
• Dystrophin in skeletal muscle functions to connect actin to a transmembrane protein complex in the sarcolemma. Which statement is true?
• In nucleotide excision repair, which enzyme makes the incisions around bulky DNA lesions such as pyrimidine dimers?
• Which condition is classically associated with defects of the first pharyngeal arch?
• Ptosis with a 'down and out' gaze indicates palsy of which cranial nerve?
• Goodpasture autoantigen is which of the following?
• Clasp-knife phenomenon is best described as which of the following?
• Which ocular finding is characteristic of Wilson's disease?
• A lesion of the internal capsule produces motor deficits in the contralateral
• Which adverse effect is commonly associated with colchicine?
• Krukenberg tumors metastasize to the ovaries from which primary site?
• Renal angiomyolipomas are a common renal manifestation of which condition?
• Vesicoureteral reflux predisposes to which renal infection presenting with pyelonephritis and white blood cell casts?
• Tumor invasion and metastasis are facilitated by which class of enzymes?
• Which autoantibody is most specific for SLE?
• In diffuse proliferative lupus nephritis, what is a classic feature?
• Goodpasture syndrome is caused by autoantibodies against which target?
• In an HIV-positive patient, a nonenhancing demyelinating brain lesion on MRI is most suggestive of which condition?
• Which vitamin deficiency presents with cheilosis and corneal vascularization?
• Haemophilus influenzae requires which growth factors to grow?
• Benign prostatic hyperplasia can cause chronic high hydrostatic pressure in Bowman's space, leading to effects on renal function. Which is the most accurate description?
• Which histologic finding is characteristic of mitochondrial myopathy?
• In the PI3K signaling pathway, the Akt kinase activates which downstream target involved in growth and metabolism?
• Squamous cell carcinoma of the lung is classically associated with which histologic feature?
• Curling ulcers are gastric ulcers associated with which physiologic change after severe burns?
• Gerstmann syndrome is defined by deficits including acalculia and finger agnosia due to lesion in the angular gyrus.
• In CKD, secondary hyperparathyroidism is driven by which metabolic changes?
• Cherry red macula is classically seen in which lysosomal storage disorder?
• Which lesion is classically associated with tertiary syphilis?
• Phenoxybenzamine is which type of antagonist and what is its effect on norepinephrine (NE)?
• What enzyme is secreted by atherosclerotic plaques that can degrade the extracellular matrix?
• If insulin is high but C-peptide is not elevated, what does this indicate?
• Interleukin-1 promotes inflammation primarily via upregulation of which enzyme?
• Which physical examination measure is used to monitor thoracic involvement in ankylosing spondylitis?
• Allopurinol is best described as which mechanism relevant to uric acid management?
• Pituitary adenomas commonly cause which visual field defect?
• In Wallerian degeneration after a nerve injury, which feature remains in the distal stump?
• Basophilic stippling is a hematologic finding most classically associated with which condition?
• Which agent is a GLP-1 receptor agonist?
• Excretion rate of A equals inulin clearance × [plasma(A)] minus Reabsorption(A). Which expression represents excretion rate?
• During prolonged fasting (>3 days), which amino acids are ketogenic and contribute to ketone body production?
• Gestational choriocarcinoma metastasizes most commonly to the
• Which drug is a TNF-alpha decoy receptor used in rheumatoid arthritis?
• Portal vein thrombosis commonly leads to which of the following findings?
• Raloxifene is a selective estrogen receptor modulator that targets estrogen receptor in which tissue?
• Imaging in Huntington's disease may show ventriculomegaly.
• Which condition presents with regional chest wall pain that worsens with palpation or movement?
• Which pharyngeal pouch gives rise to the inferior parathyroids and thymus?
• Aromatase deficiency in a genetic female leads to which of the following?
• The first pharyngeal cleft gives rise to which structure?
• Mitral regurgitation is treated by which strategy?
• Which statement describes the tuberoinfundibular dopaminergic pathway?
• Dermatomyositis is associated with malignancy most notably which organ?
• Vitamin B12 deficiency leads to impaired activity of methylmalonyl-CoA mutase; which enzyme is directly involved?
• In Krukenberg tumor histology, which statement correctly describes signet ring cells?
• Maple Syrup Urine Disease is treated with which vitamin?
• Latissimus dorsi and teres major contribute to which shoulder movement?
• In a case-control study, which measure of association is typically used?
• Which statement about hepatitis B replication is true?
• Somatic mosaicism is best described as which concept?
• Postoperative hypoparathyroidism is best treated with which therapy?
• Membranous nephropathy EM finding?
• Ghrelin is best known for which action?
• To reduce falls risk, a clinician should primarily do which of the following?
• In ectopic ACTH production causing Cushing syndrome from small cell lung carcinoma, how does the ACTH/cortisol respond to high-dose dexamethasone suppression testing?
• Spinal metastases typically present with pain that is which of the following?
• Where do the majority of corticospinal tract fibers decussate?
• Desmopressin primarily increases water permeability in which part of the nephron?
• Which molecule mediates insulin resistance by serine phosphorylation of the insulin receptor?
• What is the characteristic malignant cell of Hodgkin lymphoma?
• Prophylaxis against Rh incompatibility is given at 28 weeks gestation and postpartum to prevent maternal sensitization?
• Management of an unruptured ectopic pregnancy typically involves which agent?
• Hirschsprung disease is commonly associated with which chromosomal abnormality?
• Prostaglandin does what in kidney?
• Enterococcus is a recognized cause of which infections?
• What structure supplies the ovary with arterial blood?
• Hemarthrosis is a hallmark clinical finding in which disorder?
• Which organism is classically described as invading M cells in Peyer's patches?
• Which histologic finding is characteristic of alpha-1 antitrypsin deficiency?
• Gastrin increases gastric acid secretion primarily via which mediator?
• Leydig cells primarily secrete which hormone?
• Acetaldehyde is converted to acetate by which enzyme?
• Which of the following is a function of the proximal tubule?
• Primaquine is used to prevent relapse of malaria by acting on hypnozoites of which Plasmodium species?
• In tuberculosis, CD14 is expressed on which cell type?
• Pulsus paradoxus is defined as a drop in systolic blood pressure of approximately how many mmHg during inspiration?
• First-line therapy for hairy cell leukemia is which agent?
• Epinephrine's effect on insulin is mediated by which receptor actions?
• In sickle cell disease, which organism is classically associated with osteomyelitis?
• Aminoglycosides exert antibacterial effects by binding to which ribosomal subunit?
• From internal hemorrhoids, the venous drainage proceeds toward the portal system via which vein?
• Turner syndrome variability is due to which genetic phenomenon?
• Which dietary modification helps prevent homocystinuria?
• Where is von Willebrand factor stored in endothelial cells?
• Which imaging feature is typical for EBV-associated primary CNS lymphoma?
• Which histologic feature is associated with aging in the context of the aorta?
• Which cytokine commonly promotes B cell class switching and IgE production?
• Which mechanism increases cytosolic calcium through influx by voltage-gated channels?
• Which stain is used to assess fat malabsorption?
• Eisenmenger syndrome classically presents with cyanosis and clubbing of which area?
• Which anti-tuberculosis drug commonly causes red-orange discoloration of urine?
• Which statement about incretins GLP-1 and GIP is true?
• Which tissue is characteristic of the 10–14 day post-infarction window?
• Von Hippel-Lindau disease is associated with which tumors?
• Which virulence factor of Mycobacterium tuberculosis is most closely associated with caseating granuloma formation?
• Which hepatitis virus is associated with fulminant hepatitis and high mortality in pregnancy?
• In the hepatitis B vaccine, which component is used to prevent virion entry into hepatocytes?
• Dohle bodies are cytoplasmic inclusions seen in neutrophils and are commonly associated with which setting?
• Sirolimus inhibits which cellular pathway to prevent T cell proliferation?
• Which electrolyte abnormality is typically seen in 11β-hydroxylase deficiency CAH?
• Which description best fits IgA nephropathy (Berger disease)?
• In hypoparathyroidism, which electrolyte pattern is expected?
• Which drug is a TNF-alpha inhibitor used in RA management?
• Which sign is produced by tapping the facial nerve near the ear?
• What is the most common genetic mechanism underlying Down syndrome?
• Isotretinoin exposure in pregnancy is associated with which anomaly?
• Colonic atresia is associated with which condition?
• Which intestinal enzyme deconjugates bilirubin in the gut?
• What condition is most closely associated with horseshoe kidney?
• The subthalamic nucleus uses which neurotransmitter as its primary excitatory signal?
• Which genetic rearrangement defines Chronic Myelogenous Leukemia?
• Which inflammatory cells are predominantly involved in the airway pathology of COPD?
• Which vitamin is essential for rhodopsin formation in rod cells?
• Beta-2 receptor activation produces which of the following effects?
• What is a known beneficial effect of thiazide diuretics in relation to mineral balance?
• Which adrenal cortex zone is responsible for aldosterone production?
• In hepatitis D superinfection, what enables replication of HDV?
• What concept must you keep in mind when administering nitrates to avoid tolerance?
• Leukocidin produced by Staphylococcus aureus primarily serves to do which?
• A classic presentation of Hirschsprung disease in a newborn is which of the following?
• Which CSF finding supports a diagnosis of subarachnoid hemorrhage when initial imaging is inconclusive?
• Wilson disease inheritance pattern is which of the following?
• Which glucose transporter is insulin-sensitive and located mainly in skeletal muscle and adipose tissue?
• Granulomatosis with polyangiitis is most often associated with which ANCA pattern?
• Shaken Baby Syndrome tears which veins?
• Chronic aortic regurgitation triggers which compensatory change?
• Which statement describes how RA joint pain changes over time with activity?
• Gastrin is produced by which cells?
• External hemorrhoids are painful and located below the dentate line.
• Carpal tunnel syndrome is caused by compression of which nerve?
• Which molecule is predominantly transcribed in the nucleolus by RNA polymerase I?
• Hemispheric visual field defect with macular sparing is typically due to a lesion in which artery?
• Elevated alkaline phosphatase is most consistent with which condition?
• Which agent is on the list of drugs associated with malignant hyperthermia?
• Which hormonal therapy inhibits the LH surge in endometriosis?
• Which hypothalamic nucleus primarily secretes vasopressin (ADH) and oxytocin?
• Which condition increases the A-a gradient due to a right-to-left shunt?
• DRESS syndrome is characterized by which feature?
• GI hemorrhage commonly activates which neurohormonal axis to preserve renal perfusion?
• Intraventricular hemorrhage in newborns typically originates from which structure?
• Reversal of unfractionated heparin is achieved with which agent?
• Which symptom cluster is most characteristic of botulism?
• Autoimmune gastritis is primarily located in which region of the stomach?
• Which organism is most commonly found in an appendiceal abscess?
• Leukocytoclastic vasculitis is commonly caused by which of the following drugs?
• Deficiency in galactokinase leads to which clinical finding?
• Which mediator inhibits smooth muscle contraction by increasing cAMP?
• Polycystic ovary syndrome can affect thyroid physiology by increasing which parameter, leading to higher total T4, with no change in TSH or T3?
• Excess Vitamin C can contribute to which condition?
• Methotrexate exposure during pregnancy has teratogenic effects including which defect?
• In cohort studies, Relative Risk is calculated as which expression?
• Holocrine glands are exemplified by which type of gland?
• Which statement best describes a difference between NNRTIs and NRTIs?
• Which gene is associated with familial pulmonary arterial hypertension?
• What histologic finding is characteristic of CMV infection?
• Which treatment is indicated for a tricyclic antidepressant overdose?
• Continuous GnRH agonist therapy for prostate cancer results in decreased secretion of which hormones?
• Which stimulus is known to stimulate gastrin release via vagal GRP?
• Hypertensive arteriolar sclerosis in the brain most commonly involves which vessels and may present without midline shift?
• Buprenorphine is a partial mu receptor agonist with what effect on respiration?
• Cholesteatoma presents with which type of hearing loss?
• In pancreatic beta cells, closure of which channel by meglitinides leads to depolarization and subsequent calcium influx?
• Postrenal azotemia typically presents with which of the following findings?
• Nonbacterial thrombotic endocarditis is most commonly associated with which condition?
• Sertoli-Leydig tumor arises in which organ and secretes male hormones?
• Which drug is a calcineurin inhibitor used to prevent graft rejection?
• Which heart sound is typically heard in dilated cardiomyopathy?
• In neonates, which organism is among the leading causes of bacterial meningitis?
• The therapeutic effect of adenosine in PSVT is due to which action?
• Penicillin treatment of syphilis can be followed by which reaction characterized by systemic symptoms?
• Which enzyme catalyzes the hydration of CO2 in red blood cells, facilitating CO2 transport to the lungs?
• Which of the following is an aminoglycoside used in tuberculosis treatment?
• Brown pigment stones are associated with infection by which organisms?
• Which nerve supplies the deltoid muscle?
• In ornithine transcarbamylase deficiency, which metabolite is elevated in urine?
• Rubella is classified as which type of virus?
• Which disease is characterized by mucocutaneous telangiectasias and recurrent epistaxis?
• Sirolimus (Rapamycin) is a specific inhibitor of which component of the cellular growth signaling pathway?
• In the Lac operon, which DNA element binds the repressor protein?
• Heteroplasmy refers to what kind of inheritance?
• Nonbacterial thrombotic endocarditis vegetations are characterized as being which?
• During CO2 transport, which ion movement accompanies bicarbonate exchange in red blood cells (chloride shift)?
• Which factor can precipitate a gout attack?
• The skin change peau d'orange seen in inflammatory breast cancer is due to which pathophysiologic process?
• Hemiballismus is classically caused by damage to which brain structure?
• Which enzyme relieves DNA supercoiling by making transient single-strand nicks and resealing?
• The extrinsic coagulation pathway is primarily assessed by which laboratory test?
• In PSGN, which histologic or immunofluorescence feature is commonly described?
• What autoregulates coronary blood flow during increased myocardial activity?
• Reactivation tuberculosis cavitary lesions are classically located in which lung region?
• Which prophylactic treatment should be given at birth to prevent vitamin K deficiency bleeding?
• Which class of drug should be avoided with benzodiazepines because of excessive sedation?
• The treatment of acute promyelocytic leukemia includes which differentiating agent?
• Diabetic nephropathy hallmark lesion?
• Which cell type produces pulmonary surfactant?
• Which antibiotic is a macrolide used primarily for Clostridioides difficile infection?
• Loss of sensation over the lateral shoulder is most consistent with injury to which nerve?
• Which structure is a derivative of the fourth pharyngeal pouch?
• Neonatal vitamin K deficiency bleeding presents with bleeding in which sites?
• Lead exposure inhibits which enzyme, leading to accumulation of protoporphyrin?
• What tissue is present at 7–10 days after infarction?
• Which urine odor is classically associated with Maple Syrup Urine Disease?
• In the phosphoinositide signaling pathway, which enzyme cleaves PIP2 to generate DAG and IP3?
• What procedure is used to diagnose septic arthritis?
• Which test is used to confirm a diagnosis of sickle cell disease?
• GLP-1 is released from which cells?
• Which class of medication is used for acute treatment of migraine?
• Which of the following are the four deep cerebellar nuclei?
• Demyelination in vitamin B12 deficiency mainly affects which parts of the central nervous system?
• Small cell lung cancer may show amplification of which oncogene?
• Post-transplant CMV infection commonly causes which hematologic abnormality?
• Which nerve innervates the subscapularis muscle?
• In restrictive lung disease, the FEV1/FVC ratio is typically what?
• Valproate is used to treat seizures and which other condition?
• Raloxifene decreases osteoporosis risk and breast cancer risk and acts as what in relation to estrogen?
• Which enzymatic change predisposes to gestational diabetes?
• Which is a mechanism of beta-lactam resistance?
• Photoaging of skin is driven by UVA exposure generating reactive oxygen species that lead to decreased collagen fibrils. Which wavelength is primarily implicated?
• In obstructive lung disease, which pattern is typical on spirometry?
• Which dopaminergic pathway is most closely associated with positive symptoms in schizophrenia?
• Which GI manifestations are characteristic of post-transplant CMV infection?
• Multidrug resistance in tumor cells is commonly mediated by which mechanism?
• To prevent intracranial hemorrhage in newborns, which vitamin is routinely administered at birth?
• The HIV envelope precursor gp160 is processed in which cellular compartment to form gp120 and gp41?
• In the kidney, where is osmolarity highest?
• Which of the following is also used as a mood stabilizer in bipolar disorder and is an antiseizure medication?
• The caudate-putamen is the primary projection target of which dopaminergic pathway?
• Quinidine, procainamide, and disopyramide are examples of which antiarrhythmic class?
• Diabetes-related ophthalmoplegia typically presents with palsy of which cranial nerve?
• Which molecule serves as the cofactor specifically required for fatty acid degradation in mitochondria?
• Which hypothalamic structure is the source of antidiuretic hormone (ADH) and oxytocin?
• Which cytokines are typically elevated in sarcoid granulomatous inflammation?
• Inhibin is typically elevated in which ovarian tumor?
• Thoracic Outlet Syndrome is most commonly located at which anatomical space?
• Down syndrome can result from a balanced translocation between which chromosomes?
• Pancreatic potassium channels are sensitive to which molecule?
• Germ tube testing is used to identify Candida albicans.
• Which agent inhibits histamine release from mast cells?
• Loss of E-cadherin primarily leads to which phenomenon in cancer progression?
• In a secondary immune response, which antibody class is typically elevated the most?
• Niacin can be synthesized from which amino acid?
• Aflatoxin B1 exposure increases risk of hepatocellular carcinoma through mutation in p53.
• Activation of which hypothalamic region induces cooling responses such as sweating and vasodilation?
• Which enzyme is particularly elevated in biliary obstruction (cholestasis)?
• Which activity is associated with the hospital committee in terms of quality and safety?
• Prolonged use of topical decongestants (>3 days) can cause which of the following?
• Which presentation best describes the fat embolism syndrome triad?
• Where is C-peptide stored in pancreatic beta cells?
• Which inherited disorder is classically associated with a dark pigmented liver and predominantly conjugated hyperbilirubinemia?
• Transamination requires which vitamin as a cofactor?
• Processing of gp160 yields which mature envelope glycoproteins?
• Prion diseases are associated with which neuropathologic feature due to prion protein misfolding?
• Atrial fibrillation complications include systemic embolization leading to infarction in which organ?
• Reactive arthritis triad includes which combination?
• Kallmann syndrome is characterized by absence of GnRH from the hypothalamus, leading to which combination of findings?
• Which clinical feature is classically associated with Pompe disease?
• Occlusion of which artery produces lateral medullary (Wallenberg) syndrome?
• What is the human telomere repeat sequence?
• What is the most common preventable intellectual disability?
• Which vitamin excess is associated with gout?
• Which drug is commonly used to pharmacologically close a patent ductus arteriosus in preterm infants?
• Progesterone's effect on gallbladder function is to:
• Thiamine is a cofactor for which enzyme in carbohydrate metabolism?
• In syringomyelia, which spinal tract is disrupted leading to loss of pain and temperature at the lesion level (cape distribution)?
• Paroxysmal nocturnal hemorrhagic anemia can progress to which hematologic disorders?
• In the management of central diabetes insipidus, which drug is commonly used?
• Glyburide is an example of which class of antidiabetic agents?
• Which marker is typically positive on lymphoblasts in Acute Lymphoblastic Leukemia?
• Sorbitol accumulation in tissues can lead to which of the following as a consequence of osmotic effects?
• Renal cell carcinoma most commonly originates in which region of the kidney?
• The treatment for Pneumocystis jirovecii pneumonia is which drug?
• Complete hydatidiform mole can be associated with which pregnancy complication?
• Clopidogrel inhibits platelet aggregation by antagonizing which receptor?
• Fetal septation is typically near completion by approximately how many weeks gestation?
• Cancer cachexia is driven by which cytokines?
• Rituximab targets which cell marker?
• Left brain lesions are more likely to produce which behavior change?
• A patient with benign prostatic hyperplasia is treated with an alpha-1 blocker. Which statement best describes its primary effect?
• Which statement is true about diffuse large B-cell lymphoma?
• Which vitamin can be used in the treatment of methemoglobinemia?
• Which histologic feature is most characteristic of papillary thyroid carcinoma?
• Which medication is commonly used intravenously as first-line therapy for status epilepticus?
• Recurrent intracerebral hemorrhage is most suggestive of which underlying condition?
• Ramelteon is a melatonin receptor agonist used for insomnia.
• Which histologic feature characterizes medulloblastoma?
• Which drug is a Class III antiarrhythmic?
• PAH clearance is used to estimate which component of renal hemodynamics?
• Factitious disorder is characterized by
• Testes drain to which lymph nodes?
• Which location is rich in IgA antibodies?
• What is the product of bilirubin conjugation?
• Weight loss is most commonly associated with which condition?
• Common disease-modifying antirheumatic drugs (DMARDs) for RA include which agent?
• What is the histologic appearance of myocardial tissue 4–12 hours after infarction?
• A monoclonal antibody against PD-1 is used as a cancer therapy to block the PD-1 pathway. What is this strategy commonly called?
• Which pairing is correct?
• Which hypothalamic region is primarily associated with satiety?
• Breastfed infants should receive supplementation with which vitamin?
• Which combination would cause a leftward shift of the O2-Hgb dissociation curve?
• Which macrolide has been associated with causing increased GI motility via motilin receptor activation?
• Which antiplatelet drug inhibits cyclooxygenase in platelets?
• Diphenoxylate is used primarily to treat which condition and acts on which receptor?
• A notable adverse effect of nitroprusside is cyanide poisoning. Which of the following is a potential sign?
• Flank pain or fever after hysterectomy is most consistent with which complication?
• Desmopressin activates which intracellular signaling cascade in the kidney?
• Cyanide poisoning causes which metabolic consequence?
• Donepezil is used to treat Alzheimer's disease and belongs to which drug class?
• Which laboratory finding is characteristic of antiphospholipid antibody syndrome?
• Which pigment accumulates in tissues in hemochromatosis?
• Ballotable flank mass with radiating groin pain is most consistent with which condition?
• Which drug is known to induce SLE?
• NSAIDs can reduce dilation of the afferent arteriole by inhibiting prostaglandins. Which vessel is primarily affected by this mechanism?
• Rotavirus virion characteristics include which of the following?
• In prostatic adenocarcinoma, which site is the most likely site of metastasis?
• Which antiarrhythmic is used to treat ventricular arrhythmias after MI and digitalis toxicity?
• Which DR haplotype is associated with Hashimoto thyroiditis?
• Which condition is commonly cited as an example of heteroplasmy?
• The increase in murmur intensity with inspiration is most characteristic of which valve disorder?
• Which histopathologic feature is characteristic of Crohn disease?
• Which phenomenon commonly worsens multiple sclerosis symptoms?
• Which finding is classically seen in chronic alcoholic pancreatitis on imaging?
• Mullerian aplasia presents with which finding?
• Which auscultatory finding is classically associated with mitral valve prolapse?
• Which amino acid is required for renal acid excretion?
• Leukocytoclastic vasculitis principally affects which type of vessels?
• Which maneuver increases afterload?
• Filgrastim is best described as which type of agent?
• Very high doses of dopamine produce vasoconstriction via activation of which receptor?
• Nystagmus in lateral medullary (Wallenberg) syndrome is due to involvement of which structure?
• Interleukin-6 stimulates the liver to produce what?
• Which is a reported adverse effect of isoniazid?
• Papillary thyroid carcinoma is typically described as which of the following?
• Hypertensive intracerebral hemorrhage most commonly involves which vascular territory?
• Which exposure is a known risk factor for transitional cell carcinoma of the bladder?
• What is the initial management for hypovolemic shock?
• The palatine tonsils arise from which pharyngeal pouch?
• Interleukin-4 is produced by which T helper subset?
• Which neurotransmitter is the primary inhibitory output in the caudate nucleus and putamen?
• Which finding is most consistent with cardiac tamponade?
• BRAF oncogene mutations are most commonly associated with which cancer?
• Which form of vitamin D is produced in the skin in response to sunlight?
• The afferent limb of the carotid sinus reflex is carried by which nerve?
• Which TB drug commonly causes orange-red discoloration of body fluids?
• Aldolase B deficiency presents with which features?
• From which embryologic tissue does the anterior pituitary originate?
• The finding of fetal squamous cells in maternal pulmonary arteries is most indicative of which complication?
• Which organs are typically affected by polyarteritis nodosa?
• Which teratogen is strongly associated with neural tube defects when exposure occurs in pregnancy?
• Which enzyme is required for synthesis of the peptidoglycan cell wall in bacteria?
• Sheehan syndrome occurs due to ischemic necrosis of the pituitary as a consequence of which obstetric complication?
• Direct inguinal hernia occurs due to weakness in which fascial layer?
• Which finding is not part of Horner's syndrome?
• Which statement about proton pump inhibitors is true?
• Paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria is characterized by the absence of which surface proteins on red blood cells?
• Parainfluenza virus genome and envelope status?
• Turner syndrome is most commonly associated with which chromosomal state?
• Pancoast syndrome refers to a non–small cell lung cancer located at the apex of the lung and typically causes which combination of findings?
• All-trans retinoic acid (ATRA) therapy is a key treatment for which leukemia characterized by t(15;17)?
• Atherosclerosis occurs in which of the following states?
• Where is osmolarity highest in the kidney?
• S3 heart sound is heard best at which point in the cardiac cycle?
• Which test is used to diagnose asthma by provoking bronchoconstriction and assessing airway hyperresponsiveness?
• Fibromuscular dysplasia is characterized by the absence of which arterial layer?
• In amniotic fluid testing for fetal lung maturity, which Lecithin to Sphingomyelin ratio indicates maturity?
• Which of the following describes the action of somatostatin?
• Gabapentin exerts its antiepileptic effect by inhibiting which channel?
• Compared with omphalocele, gastroschisis is more likely to have which feature?
• IgG responds in which type of immune response?
• Which dopaminergic pathway is primarily involved in Parkinson's disease motor symptoms?
• Fanconi anemia primarily affects which nephron segment?
• Patau syndrome is associated with which trisomy?
• Which finding is commonly associated with Tetralogy of Fallot?
• Goodpasture deposition pattern involves which features?
• Which organism serves as the intermediate host for Schistosoma species?
• Which finding is most characteristic of primary biliary cholangitis?
• Biotin is a cofactor for which of the following enzymes?
• Gallstone ileus is characterized by which finding?
• Which adverse effect of ACE inhibitors is most clearly linked to bradykinin accumulation?
• Treatment for Hereditary Orotic Aciduria?
• Muscarinic antagonists block vagal ACh–mediated bronchoconstriction by antagonizing which action?
• Which finding is a hallmark of increased intracranial pressure and hydrocephalus?
• Which statement best differentiates Lambert-Eaton from myasthenia gravis?
• GIP/GLP share which primary metabolic action on insulin?
• Which factors increase lung compliance?
• How can exogenous erythropoietin administration influence blood pressure?
• Which statement best describes the midsystolic click?
• Which agent is used to prevent motion sickness by blocking muscarinic receptors?
• WT1 tumor suppressor mutations predispose to which tumor?
• Norovirus is best described as which type of virus in terms of its envelope?
• What is the function of interferon-α and interferon-β in viral infections?
• A common adverse effect of zidovudine is which of the following?
• Cholesteatoma is composed of what material behind the tympanic membrane?
• Multiple sclerosis is best described by which immunopathogenesis?
• Streptococcus pyogenes is best described as which of the following?
• Which condition can cause hypercalcemia via extrarenal production of 1,25-dihydroxyvitamin D?
• The zona glomerulosa of the adrenal cortex is regulated primarily by which factor?
• Bacteremia in a patient with sickle cell disease most commonly involves which organism?
• Reactivation tuberculosis cavitary lesions are most commonly located in which part of the lungs?
• Herpes simplex virus type 1 (HSV-1) encephalitis classically affects which brain region, contributing to behavioral changes such as hyperorality and hypersexuality?
• Which two agents from the list are used to treat bipolar disorder?
• Compared with killed vaccines, live attenuated vaccines generally have which characteristic?
• Which equation correctly expresses renal blood flow (RBF) in terms of PAH clearance and hematocrit?
• Burkitt lymphoma translocation?
• In serum sickness, which complement component is typically decreased due to immune complex consumption?
• McArdle disease results from deficiency of which enzyme?
• What is the characteristic murmur of mitral regurgitation?
• Ribose-5-phosphate is converted to fructose-6-phosphate in the PPP by which enzyme?
• Which sugar is metabolized fastest because it bypasses PFK-1 regulation?
• BMPR2 gene encodes a receptor for which signaling molecule?
• Alcohol-induced hepatic steatosis occurs due to a change in the NADH/NAD+ ratio. Which statement is correct?
• Which of the following is a characteristic finding in congenital hypothyroidism?
• Which physical finding is commonly associated with spina bifida and is mentioned alongside Dandy-Walker-related notes?
• GLP-1 receptor agonists affect insulin and glucagon levels by which of the following?
• Boerhaave syndrome is characterized by which finding?
• Which antibiotic is active against VRE (vancomycin-resistant Enterococcus)?
• Metoclopramide mechanism of action?
• In metabolic acidosis, where does bicarbonate-based buffering involve excretion of hydrogen via titratable acids or NH4 synthesis?
• Klumpke's palsy results from injury to which part of the brachial plexus?
• Which biologic agent targets IgE and is used in allergic asthma?
• Warfarin acts by inhibiting which enzyme?
• Charcot-Bouchard microaneurysms are most commonly due to hypertensive vasculopathy affecting which vessels?
• In restrictive/interstitial lung disease, radial traction from fibrosis tends to cause what change in the airways?
• Which of the following is used to treat polymyositis?
• Which characteristic describes buspirone?
• Which statement accurately describes cholestyramine's effect on lipid profiles?
• Which antibody is efficiently transferred from mother to fetus across the placenta?
• Which enzyme converts norepinephrine to epinephrine?
• Which cytokine is a major inducer of acute-phase proteins and raises ESR?
• In hypertensive retinopathy, which retinal finding is most characteristic?
• Constricting the efferent arteriole will cause:
• Which drug class is most associated with anticholinergic effects and includes first-generation antihistamines?
• TCAs produce adverse effects in part due to blockade of which receptor?
• Which receptor blockade is most associated with low-potency typical antipsychotics?
• Initial management of a vaso-occlusive pain crisis typically includes which approach?
• Sodium thiosulfate donates sulfur to form which compound in cyanide poisoning treatment?
• The cranial nerve responsible for facial sensation and taste projects through which thalamic nucleus?
• Hypertensive intracerebral hemorrhage is most strongly associated with which condition?
• Irreversible subcellular change in the myocardium within the first 24 hours after MI?
• Dantrolene treats malignant hyperthermia by which mechanism?
• Which of the following is an SSRI?
• Maturation of which cell type is primarily responsible for surfactant production?
• Which of the following drugs is an NRTI?
• Essential fructosuria is asymptomatic due to compensation by which enzyme?
• Removal of glutamate from the synaptic cleft by astrocytes, which converts it to glutamine, prevents excessive neuronal excitation. This describes which process?
• Vitamin A deficiency presents with which signs?
• Molecular mimicry associated with rheumatic fever is caused by infection with which organism?
• To reduce seizure risk in metabolic disorders characterized by hypoketotic hypoglycemia, which practice should be avoided?
• Vitamin D deficiency leads to which disease in children?
• Vancomycin inhibits bacterial cell wall synthesis by binding to which dipeptide sequence?
• Clear cell RCC cells have cytoplasm that is rich in which substances, giving a clear appearance under light microscopy?
• Which enzyme converts glucose-1-phosphate to UDP-glucose in glycogen metabolism?
• In a hypothyroid crisis (myxedema crisis), which metabolic abnormality is commonly observed?
• Which brain structure is described as producing dopamine, growth hormone releasing hormone, and gonadotropin-releasing hormone?
• The primary mechanism underlying varicose veins is which of the following?
• Which cerebellar structure carries ipsilateral input from the limbs to the cerebellum?
• Fibrates exert their lipid effect partly by inhibiting which enzyme involved in bile acid synthesis?
• Osgood-Schlatter disease involves two ossification centers at the tibial tuberosity. How many ossification centers are involved?
• Calcium pyrophosphate deposition disease (pseudogout) is typically treated with which agent to relieve acute attacks?
• Where are EBV-related primary CNS lymphomas typically located?
• Risperidone is classified as what type of psychotropic agent?
• Which structure propagates action potentials into the interior of skeletal muscle fibers to coordinate contraction?
• Pantothenic acid is a component of which essential coenzyme used in fatty acid synthesis?
• Odansetron acts as an antagonist of which receptor?
• Which electrolyte disturbance is commonly associated with amphotericin B therapy and can lead to arrhythmias?
• In Acute Tubular Necrosis, which tubular segment is primarily injured?
• Amitriptyline exerts its antidepressant effect primarily by inhibiting which ion channel?
• When is beta-hCG first detectable in serum after fertilization?
• Intraventricular hemorrhage is most common in which group of neonates?
• Which factor makes an inhaled anesthetic more potent?
• Which type of hernia travels through the deep inguinal ring?
• Fat embolism syndrome is classically associated with which type of injury?
• Which mediator is typically elevated and contributes to vasoconstriction in PAH?
• Which phospholipid is a major component of surfactant and increases with maturation?
• DPP-4 inhibitors increase incretins such as GLP-1 and GIP.
• Rituximab targets which B-cell marker?
• Dermatomyositis skin findings include which of the following?
• Carcinoid tumors most commonly arise from enterochromaffin cells in which portion of the gastrointestinal tract?
• Injury at the Guyon canal most directly damages which nerve?
• Where is great saphenous vein access typically made?
• Which chromosomal disorder has an increased risk of metabolic syndrome?
• Squatting primarily affects preload/afterload; which murmurs typically decrease in intensity with squatting in MVP and HCM?
• Rett syndrome is most commonly associated with mutation in which gene?
• Which statement best describes pulmonary blood flow per minute compared with systemic blood flow per minute in a healthy circulation?
• Which effect do GLP-1 receptor agonists have on gastric emptying?
• Acarbose and miglitol exert their antihyperglycemic effect by which mechanism?
• What happens to MAC as the blood gas partition coefficient of an inhaled anesthetic increases?
• Which anti-TB drug can cause drug-induced SLE?
• Bromocriptine is which type of dopamine receptor agonist?
• Which lab pattern is most associated with primary biliary cholangitis?
• PAH clearance is calculated as which of the following?
• Osgood-Schlatter disease affects swelling at which anatomical site?
• What is the recommended folate strategy for pregnancies at risk due to valproate or phenytoin exposure?
• Which drug is used to prevent asthma attacks by stabilizing mast cells?
• Which class of drugs can blunt the diuretic effect of loop diuretics by inhibiting prostaglandin synthesis?
• Which route is the primary mode of transmission for Hepatitis E virus?
• In prerenal azotemia, which urine findings are most typical?
• Anatomic pulmonary shunting via bronchial circulation reduces PO2 in the left atrium/ventricle relative to PO2 in the pulmonary capillaries. Which statement best describes this effect?
• Edwards syndrome is associated with which trisomy?
• Rb tumor suppressor mutations predispose to which cancer?
• Cleft lip and palate is associated with which chromosomal anomaly?
• Rubella belongs to which virus family?
• Which adverse effect is classically associated with cimetidine?
• Krabbe disease is characterized by increased levels of which lipid?
• Isoproterenol is a nonselective adrenergic agonist with activity at which receptor subtypes?
• Ventricular fibrillation after myocardial infarction most commonly leads to what outcome?
• ABPA is characterized by which of the following features?
• Which nerve provides parasympathetic innervation to the parotid gland?
• Which pair of immunoglobulins are commonly produced during systemic humoral responses?
• Which toxin has a mechanism most closely related to the action of diphtheria toxin via ribosylation of elongation factor-2?
• Decreased blood pressure triggers which autonomic changes?
• Vipoma is treated with which agent?
• What is a hallmark finding of nephritic syndrome?
• In 17α-hydroxylase deficiency, 46,XY individuals commonly present with
• Which drug is a Class IV antiarrhythmic that blocks L-type calcium channels?
• Which enzyme performs conjugation of bilirubin in the liver?
• Photosensitivity is a common feature of SLE. Which option best reflects this?
• Beta-thalassemia trait is typically associated with which hemoglobin pattern?
• Which tubule is impermeable to water in the absence of ADH?
• IL-2 is produced by which cells?
• MEN2B is due to activation of which gene?
• GLP-1's major metabolic action includes which of the following?
• Filtration fraction is defined as GFR divided by RPF. Which expression represents FF?
• Empyema is best defined as what?
• The infundibulopelvic ligament is also known as which structure?
• Sensitivity is defined as which ratio?
• IgE responds in which contexts?
• An increase in norepinephrine activity is most commonly associated with which condition?
• Medulloblastoma is typically located in which region of the brain?
• Nitrates should not be given to individuals with which condition?
• Calcitonin is secreted by which cells of the thyroid?
• Which finding helps differentiate folate deficiency from vitamin B12 deficiency?
• Which of the following best describes the clinical features of homocystinuria?
• Which gene is mutated in McCune-Albright syndrome?
• Elastin elasticity is due to crosslinking between chains of what amino acid residue?
• Lesion of the internal capsule commonly results in a reflex change on the contralateral side?
• Which PDE5 inhibitor is commonly used to treat BPH symptoms?
• Which of the following is a common risk factor for renal cell carcinoma?
• Seronegative spondyloarthritis is strongly associated with which HLA antigen?
• Renal papillary necrosis classically presents with which symptom?
• Which selective B1 blocker is notable for its very short duration of action and use in acute settings?
• Chronic transplant rejection involves which hypersensitivity mechanisms?
• Primary biliary cholangitis (PBC) looks morphologically similar to which condition?
• Enterococcus is a recognized cause of which biliary condition?
• Haloperidol is best described as which class of antipsychotic?
• Which sign is most characteristic of Duchenne muscular dystrophy?
• Which hypothalamic region mediates heating responses such as shivering and vasoconstriction?
• Methadone is best described as which?
• Which enzyme conjugates unconjugated bilirubin to conjugated bilirubin?
• Which cofactor is required for the conversion of tryptophan to serotonin (5-HT)?
• The histology of Renal Papillary Necrosis is which type of necrosis?
• The suffix -tidine denotes which class of medications in the setting of traveler's diarrhea?
• Which enzyme deficiency is classically associated with severe combined immunodeficiency (SCID)?
• In cyanide poisoning, what is the mechanism of action of sodium thiosulfate as an antidote?
• Lesion of the lateral hypothalamus produces which of the following?
• What is a key adverse effect of intravenous acyclovir, and what precaution minimizes it?
• Which histologic feature is seen as an early sign of myocardial ischemia at 4–12 hours?
• Caloric content per gram of protein or carbohydrate?
• Above the dentate line, hemorrhoids drain into which venous system?
• Ramelteon is best described as which type of agent?
• Absolute Risk Reduction (ARR) is defined as
• Warfarin embryopathy is classically characterized by which findings?
• Which bone change is classically associated with osteitis fibrosa cystica due to hyperparathyroidism?
• After prostatectomy, which is a common complication?
• Which statement correctly describes the mechanism of action of alkylating agents?
• Which is the primary treatment for hepatic encephalopathy?
• Pharyngeal pouches are derived from which germ layer?
• Which feature most supports a leukemoid reaction rather than leukemia?
• Cholecystokinin is secreted by which cells?
• The thick ascending limb of the loop of Henle has what effect on tubular fluid osmolality?
• Warfarin reversal for rapid correction is commonly achieved with which?
• Classic symptoms of endometriosis include infertility, dysmenorrhea, and painful intercourse. Which option best completes this list?
• Which hernia type is most commonly found in females?
• Etanercept is a TNF-alpha decoy receptor. Which statement correctly describes its role?
• Cholecystokinin causes which of the following?
• Which of the following is a Class IA antiarrhythmic agent?
• Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome is most commonly associated with which drug class?
• Which agent acts as an antidote for methanol or ethylene glycol poisoning by inhibiting alcohol dehydrogenase?
• In congestive heart failure with reduced ejection fraction, which class of drugs improves LV systolic function by blocking sympathetic stimulation?
• Sickling of hemoglobin S is promoted by which conditions?
• Rett syndrome is caused by a mutation in MECP2 located on which chromosome?
• Indirect inguinal hernia is located lateral to the inferior epigastric vessels. Which is true?
• Osmotic demyelination syndrome most commonly occurs after rapid correction of which electrolyte abnormality?
• Which statement describes the benzodiazepines mechanism?
• In base excision repair, which enzyme creates a nick in the DNA backbone after base removal?
• In bacteria, which enzyme introduces negative supercoils into DNA and relieves torsional strain?
• At functional residual capacity, which pair of pressures best describes alveolar and intrapleural pressures?
• Which bacterial enzyme removes RNA primers during DNA replication via a 5' to 3' exonuclease activity?
• Which is a modifiable risk factor for falls?
• Aprepitant is a neurokinin-1 receptor antagonist. Which receptor does it target?
• Which condition would promote a rightward shift (enhanced O2 unloading) of the O2-Hgb curve?
• What is the first-line pharmacologic therapy to prevent cerebral vasospasm after subarachnoid hemorrhage?
• What does ether kill?
• In cardiogenic shock, which parameters tend to be increased?
• A decrease in norepinephrine is most closely linked to which condition?
• Interleukin-12 promotes differentiation toward which T helper subset?
• Activation of alpha-1 adrenergic receptors causes which effect at the bladder?
• How does PTH affect renal phosphate handling in hyperparathyroidism?
• Lynch syndrome is characterized by microsatellite instability due to mutations in which genes?
• Administration of erythropoietin-stimulating agents may worsen which condition?
• Tachyphylaxis to a vasoconstrictor occurs due to which mechanism?
• Which immunoglobulin cannot cross the placenta?
• Which agent is commonly given intravenously for initial management of status epilepticus?
• Adalimumab belongs to which class of drugs?
• In Gilbert syndrome, which bilirubin fraction is elevated?
• Linezolid has MAOI activity; which statement is true?
• Which neonatal condition increases the risk of vitamin K deficiency bleeding due to fat malabsorption?
• Factor Xa activity affects which coagulation tests?
• Which antibiotic is a macrolide?
• Which hormone primarily stimulates gallbladder contraction?
• Smooth muscle contraction occurs via which primary pathway?
• Which medication is used to treat serotonin syndrome by blocking 5-HT2 receptors?
• Lines of Zahn are histologic features of which pathology?
• Which is a risk factor for endometrial hyperplasia?
• Decreased dopamine is characteristic of which disease?
• In Fabry disease, which lipid accumulates due to alpha-galactosidase A deficiency?
• Which prenatal treatment reduces the risk of neonatal respiratory distress syndrome in at-risk preterm birth?
• Parotid gland tumor causing facial droop involves which cranial nerve?
• Annular pancreas is caused by which embryologic event?
• Which condition does NOT decrease lung compliance?
• Within the first 24 hours after myocardial infarction, which type of injury is most likely to occur?
• Tuberculosis granulomas characteristically demonstrate which type of necrosis?
• Which lysosomal storage disorder is associated with increased GM2 ganglioside?
• Rosenthal fibers, eosinophilic corkscrews, are characteristic of which tumor?
• Autoregulatory compensation in the kidney increases filtration fraction when GFR or RPF decreases. Which statement best describes this effect?
• SGLT2 inhibitors act primarily in which part of the nephron to promote renal glucose loss?
• What is the earliest histologic change seen in brain tissue after ischemia, typically within 12-24 hours?
• Bronchioalveolar carcinoma is also known as which entity?
• Derivatives of the first pharyngeal pouch include which of the following?
• Relative Risk Reduction (RRR) is equal to
• What is the first-line treatment for an acute gout flare?
• Which immunotherapy agent is used to treat advanced renal cell carcinoma?
• Which medication is a first-generation antipsychotic?
• Which clinical finding supports a tetanus diagnosis with heightened reflexes?
• Hemolytic uremic syndrome is most classically associated with infection by Shigella and which enteric organism?
• Which finding is most typical of congenital hypothyroidism in newborns?
• Crigler-Najjar syndrome type I is described by which feature?
• Cyclophosphamide is metabolized to a compound that causes hemorrhagic cystitis. What is the name of this metabolite?
• Carcinoid syndrome can lead to pellagra due to niacin deficiency because tryptophan is diverted to serotonin synthesis. Which vitamin is deficient?
• What amino acid substitution occurs in the beta-globin chain in sickle cell disease?
• Metformin carries a risk of lactic acidosis, especially in which clinical scenario?
• RPGN histologic feature?
• Mesna is administered to prevent hemorrhagic cystitis caused by which chemotherapy agent?
• Compared with first-generation antipsychotics, second-generation antipsychotics are more commonly associated with:
• Which vitamin acts as a cofactor for the enzyme succinate dehydrogenase in the TCA cycle?
• Confounding bias occurs when which of the following happens?
• Atomoxetine is used for ADHD as a nonstimulant due to its action as?
• Which statement about bronchioloalveolar carcinoma is most accurate?
• Repeated infarction causes which histopathologic change?
• Relative polycythemia occurs due to which of the following?
• Metabolic alkalosis is most characteristically produced by which event?
• Which finding is classically associated with sarcoidosis on chest imaging?
• Paraneoplastic cerebellar degeneration is typically associated with autoimmune attack on which neural population?
• What is colchicine's mechanism of action in gout?
• Which statement is true about elastin elasticity?
• Interleukin-8 functions as a chemotactic factor for which cells?
• In intracellular transport along microtubules, dynein moves cargo in which direction?
• Which electrolyte abnormality is associated with digoxin toxicity risk?
• The main pancreatic duct is formed from which pancreatic bud?
• Call-Exner bodies are histologic features seen in which tumor?
• Which of the following is a common adverse effect of halothane anesthesia?
• Which type of vaccine uses inactivated organisms that cannot replicate?
• Ehlers-Danlos syndrome is due to a defect in which enzyme?
• The hepatitis B vaccine contains which antigen?
• Subacute Combined Degeneration due to vitamin B12 deficiency classically involves degeneration of which tracts?
• Eosinophilic granuloma is a manifestation of which disease?
• Schistosoma haematobium infection is associated with which findings?
• Renal vein thrombosis in nephrotic syndrome is classically associated with which features?
• Acute Intermittent Porphyria is due to deficiency of which enzyme?
• ADH in the collecting duct increases diffusion of which solute down its gradient?
• Lambert-Eaton myasthenic syndrome is most commonly associated with antibodies against which target?
• Neuroblastoma most commonly presents in children younger than which age?
• Candida albicans infections are commonly found in which locations and may show what features?
• Which antiandrogen is commonly combined with GnRH agonist therapy to prevent a testosterone flare?
• Reaction formation is defined as
• Which enzyme activates trypsin in digestion?
• Which statement about von Willebrand factor is true?
• Which symptom characterizes Huntington's disease movement disorder?
• Hyperacute transplant rejection is mediated by which mechanism?
• A lesion described as having a soap bubble appearance on imaging is most characteristic of which bone area?
• Engagement of PD-1 on T cells results in which effect?
• What is the correct sequential order of the histopathologic phases of ARDS?
• Xanthelasma are characterized histologically by which cells in the dermis?
• In most liver diseases, which enzyme is higher?
• In the context of drug-eluting stents, which class of drug is typically used?
• A common peroneal nerve injury is most likely associated with fracture of which bone?
• Which mechanism explains niacin-induced flushing?
• Microsatellite instability is a hallmark of tumors with defective mismatch repair, such as those seen in Lynch syndrome.
• Which morphological feature is characteristic of Candida albicans in culture?
• Loperamide is best described as:
• Peripheral smear with smudge cells is most characteristic of which leukemia?
• In Huntington's disease, which neurotransmitter is decreased contributing to movement disorders?
• Syringomyelia is characterized by a central cystic dilation most often in which region of the spinal cord?
• Loss of sensation over the suprapubic region is most consistent with injury to which nerve?
• H. pylori gastritis histology is best described by which pattern?
• Which antiarrhythmic class is associated with hypothyroidism as an adverse effect?
• In infancy, which presentation is typical of biliary atresia?
• Which ion change is associated with thiazide use?
• Injury at the supinator canal most directly affects which nerve?
• Which antibiotic class is known to interact with warfarin via cytochrome P450 inhibition?
• Which vitamin is required for the remethylation of homocysteine to methionine?
• Anencephaly causes polyhydramnios primarily by which mechanism?
• Abdominal aortic aneurysm commonly presents with which physical finding?
• Chronic renal allograft rejection is typically associated with which combination of findings?
• Amiodarone, ibutilide, sotalol, and dofetilide are examples of which antiarrhythmic class?
• Which feature is characteristic of sideroblastic anemia?
• Which intravenous fluid is listed as an alternative for volume resuscitation alongside lactated Ringer's solution?
• Osmotic demyelination syndrome classically follows rapid correction of which electrolyte abnormality?
• Is isotretinoin exposure most commonly associated with which anomaly?
• During kidney development, the metanephric mesoderm forms which portion of the nephron?
• Which lab value is essential to check before initiating metformin therapy?
• What is the management for psychogenic polydipsia?
• Amyloidosis hallmark diagnostic finding?
• What is the standard pharmacologic therapy for Wilson's disease?
• Where in the body has the least amount of oxygenated blood?
• Potter sequence can be caused by exposure to which of the following?
• In hereditary hemochromatosis, iron absorption is increased primarily in which part of the gastrointestinal tract?
• Which murmurs are typically increased by Valsalva maneuver due to decreased preload/afterload?
• Which nerve is at risk with an anterior shoulder dislocation?
• Pepsin primarily digests which substrate?
• Leukotriene B4 is a chemoattractant for which cells?
• Which disease is commonly associated with the MHC class I gene cluster (HLA-A,B,C)?
• DiGeorge syndrome results from abnormal development of which pharyngeal pouches?
• Which statement best describes the mechanism of thiazolidinediones like pioglitazone?
• Ewing sarcoma is most commonly found in which part of long bones?
• Which expression correctly defines oral bioavailability (F)?
• Sorbitol accumulation during hyperglycemia can cause osmotic damage to which cells?
• Tamoxifen targets which receptor in breast cancer?
• Which statement best describes the typical course of hepatitis A infection?
• Polycythemia vera is most commonly associated with a gain-of-function mutation in which gene?
• Surgical relief of carpal tunnel involves which step?
• In PAH, which mutation is commonly associated?
• Biliary sludge is most often associated with which condition?
• In suspected heparin-induced thrombocytopenia, which agent is preferred due to direct thrombin inhibition?
• The primary activity of the hospital committee described is which of the following?
• Which phosphorylation state of RB allows progression from G1 to S phase?
• A positive Babinski sign is most consistent with which type of lesion?
• The fade phenomenon with repeated dosing is characteristic of which type of neuromuscular blocker?
• Which feature differentiates schizoaffective disorder from schizophrenia?
• What targeted therapy is used for HER2-positive breast cancer?
• Pulmonary hamartoma tissue composition includes which combination of tissues?
• Antimetabolites are most active during which phase, making them classically S-phase specific?
• Botulinum toxin causes its effects by which primary mechanism?
• In the heme synthesis pathway, the immediate product formed from delta-aminolevulinic acid (ALA) is which compound?
• Duodenal atresia (double bubble) is associated with which trisomy?
• In osteomyelitis, which region of a long bone is most commonly involved on MRI?
• Oseltamivir is an antiviral that inhibits which enzyme to treat influenza?
• Mantle cell lymphoma is associated with translocation t(11;14) leading to overexpression of which protein?
• GGTP is increased in which disease state?
• Which stone type is classically associated with staghorn calculi in the setting of a chronic infection with urease-producing bacteria?
• Aortic regurgitation murmur is best described as which of the following?
• Alpha-1 antitrypsin deficiency predisposes to emphysema due to unchecked neutrophil elastase, a serine protease. What class best describes alpha-1 antitrypsin?
• Idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis is classically associated with which pattern?
• Sulfonylureas act by which mechanism?
• RB gene mutation predisposes to which type of sarcoma?
• Which symptom is a hallmark of vaso-occlusive pain crisis in sickle cell disease?
• Clear cell renal cell carcinoma characteristically arises from which nephron segment?
• Gottron's papules are associated with which condition?
• Which is a common cause of acute pancreatitis?
• In celiac disease, which serologic test is commonly used as a screening assay?
• Which gene is mutated in Ataxia Telangiectasia?
• Which placental hormone contributes to maternal insulin resistance in pregnancy?
• Fibrates in combination with statins increase risk of myopathy.
• Which adverse effect is commonly associated with vincristine therapy?
• Hepatic steatosis is an adverse effect commonly seen with which antiretroviral drug class?
• In the setting of heparin-induced thrombocytopenia, which agent is a direct thrombin inhibitor used for management?
• Inulin clearance is used clinically as a measure of which of the following?
• Warfarin embryopathy presents with which finding?
• Which agent is used to treat prolactinoma?
• In polymyositis, which of the following is upregulated on the sarcolemma?
• In first-order pharmacokinetics, how many half-lives are typically required to reach approximately 95% of the steady state?
• Acute viral myocarditis is most commonly caused by which type of pathogen?
• A pulmonary hamartoma is classically composed of which tissue type?
• Which marker is characteristically expressed in Hairy Cell Leukemia?
• Pulsus paradoxus is most classically associated with which condition?
• Tumor lysis syndrome is characterized by elevations in which solutes, contributing to arrhythmia and acute renal failure?
• Abdominal aortic aneurysm is associated with which histologic finding?
• Reactive arthritis presents with which pattern of arthritis?
• Which muscle is primarily innervated by the musculocutaneous nerve?
• Which agent has been shown to reduce mortality in congestive heart failure?
• The enzyme responsible for iodination and coupling in thyroid hormone synthesis is:
• Buspirone is best described as which pharmacologic action?
• Steroid hormones are synthesized in which organelle?
• Proton pump inhibitors work by which mechanism?
• Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome includes which of the following?
• In Krabbe disease, which lipid accumulates?
• Which segment of the Loop of Henle is impermeable to water when ADH is absent?
• Which is a known complication of diabetic ketoacidosis?
• Intraductal papilloma commonly presents with which symptom?
• Which nerve innervates the infraspinatus muscle?
• Beta-1 receptor activation has which effects on the heart?
• Which statement best describes aldosterone's effect in the collecting duct?
• ADH acts on which renal segment to promote water reabsorption?
• Is osteoarthritis inflammatory?
• What is the rate-limiting step in bile acid synthesis?
• Pharyngeal clefts are derived from which germ layer?
• Omphalocele is characterized by which feature?
• Acute transplant rejection occurring within six months is primarily mediated by which type of hypersensitivity?
• Frontal bossing is a finding associated with which condition in children?
• Potter sequence is classically due to which condition?
• Which class of drugs is first-line therapy for erectile dysfunction?
• Chloramphenicol MOA: It is a 50S ribosomal subunit inhibitor.
• What is the primary function of transverse tubules in skeletal muscle?
• GLUT4 is primarily expressed in which tissues?
• Which hepatitis B virus antigen forms the surface antigen on the virion?
• Iron homeostasis is primarily regulated by which organ?
• Co-administration of statins with potent CYP450 inhibitors is associated with an increased risk of which adverse outcome?
• Which substance inhibits platelet aggregation?
• Which shunt provides the necessary mixing in transposition of the great arteries for survival?
• Which extrathyroidal manifestation is characteristic of Graves disease?
• Which disease characteristically yields a dry tap on bone marrow aspiration?
• Metronidazole adverse effects include which of the following disulfiram-like reactions?
• During 3-5 days after MI, which complication may cause mitral regurgitation?
• Which conditions are recognized etiologies of mitral regurgitation?
• Rett syndrome classically presents with regression in what age range and what features?
• Osmotic demyelination syndrome most notably affects which brain region?
• In mitral stenosis, which pressure is typically increased?
• Which symptom constellation is classic for subarachnoid hemorrhage?
• Fibromuscular dysplasia is associated with which vascular abnormality?
• Direct inguinal hernias are medial to which vessels?
• Henoch-Schönlein purpura most commonly occurs in which age group?
• Salmonella typhi infection classically presents with which combination of findings?
• Porphyria Cutanea Tarda commonly presents with photosensitivity and which skin finding?
• Which enzyme catalyzes the dismutation of superoxide radicals into hydrogen peroxide and oxygen?
• Shigella invades M cells in Peyer's patches.
• Which symptom is most characteristic of a femoral nerve injury?
• Hypercalcemia in squamous cell carcinoma of the lung is due to production of which molecule?
• Henoch-Schönlein purpura is most commonly associated with which immunoglobulin deposition?
• Linezolid has MAOI activity. Which of the following is a potential interaction with other serotonergic drugs?
• Which drug is a Class IB antiarrhythmic commonly used for ventricular arrhythmias?
• Which thalamic nucleus relays motor information to the motor cortex?
• Ceftriaxone exerts its antibacterial effect by binding to which target?
• Granulomatosis with polyangiitis typically presents with which combination of findings?
• DPP-4 inhibitors are commonly referred to by what name?
• Which statement best describes an aortic dissection?
• Auditory information travels via the pathway that includes the superior olive and inferior colliculus and CN VIII to which lobe of the brain?
• What antiemetic is commonly used for nausea and vomiting due to bacterial or chemotherapeutic triggers?
• Which feature is characteristic of primary sclerosing cholangitis imaging?
• Which antiepileptic drug is associated with Stevens-Johnson syndrome as a notable adverse effect?
• What is a typical prerequisite for hospice care?
• Which hematologic abnormality is commonly seen in SLE?
• Which laboratory test is used to monitor unfractionated heparin therapy?
• Which herbal supplement is a potent inducer of hepatic cytochrome P450 enzymes?
• Which urinary metabolite is elevated in carcinoid syndrome?
• Hashimoto thyroiditis is associated with which pattern of thyroid hormone levels?
• Which gene mutations are associated with pheochromocytoma development?
• Autoimmune gastritis preferentially involves which region and leads to loss of which cells?
• ACE inhibitors primarily cause dilation of which arteriole by reducing Ang II activity?
• What is a common treatment for neonatal abstinence syndrome?
• Damage to which thalamic nucleus would produce contralateral sensory loss from the body?
• Chloramphenicol adverse effect includes pancytopenia.
• Renal papillary necrosis is associated with which of the following etiologies?
• Which antibiotic is the treatment of choice for Listeria monocytogenes infections?
• In the lungs, which cell contains elastase in its azurophilic granules?
• Complete hydatidiform mole is typically associated with
• Which feature is a hallmark of congenital pyloric stenosis?
• Which auscultatory finding is most characteristic of mitral stenosis?
• Rasburicase lowers uric acid levels by which described action?
• Which type of necrosis characteristically occurs in brain infarcts?
• Which structure in the cardiac conduction system provides the atrioventricular conduction delay?
• Which drug among the following inhibits DNA-dependent RNA polymerase as part of TB therapy?
• Lithium can cause polyuria and polydipsia due to antagonism of ADH action in the collecting ducts.
• Ductal carcinoma in situ (DCIS) classically shows which pattern of calcifications on imaging?
• Acalculous cholecystitis occurs in which setting?
• Bleomycin induces double-strand DNA breaks via reactive oxygen species primarily in which phase of the cell cycle?
• After exposure to a pathogen, which intervention provides immediate protection by supplying preformed antibodies?
• Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy is commonly caused by mutations in which sarcomeric proteins?
• Which statement about Brown-Sequard syndrome is most accurate?
• Dermatitis herpetiformis is strongly associated with celiac disease and shows IgA deposits in which skin structure?
• The limbic system is primarily involved in which functions?
• Which autoantibody is most characteristic of Hashimoto thyroiditis?
• In mitral regurgitation, acute decompensation is associated with which change in afterload compared with chronic decompensation?
• Tea-colored urine is a classic symptom of Porphyria Cutanea Tarda. Which option best represents this symptom’s description?
• Which drug is a topoisomerase II inhibitor?
• In ARDS, chest radiographs classically show which pattern?
• Which immune cell mediates ADCC by recognizing IgG bound to target cells?
• Which murmur is holosystolic at the apex and radiates to the axilla?
• Benztropine is used to treat drug-induced parkinsonism.
• HPV types 6 and 11 are most commonly associated with which lesion?
• Which of the following is NOT a typical methotrexate-related defect?
• Succinylcholine produces which type of neuromuscular blockade?
• In axonal transport, which direction does kinesin move along microtubules?
• Giant cell arteritis is associated with elevated levels of which cytokine?
• Which agent is used to treat carcinoid syndrome?
• Meningitis with normal CSF glucose most likely indicates which type?
• Gerstmann syndrome is associated with a lesion in which region?
• Which agent is used in Hodgkin lymphoma treatment and is associated with pulmonary toxicity?
• Which medication is a 5-alpha reductase inhibitor used in BPH management as per the material?
• Absolute Risk Reduction (ARR) equals
• Subdural hemorrhage in infants is commonly associated with which condition?
• Tricuspid valve endocarditis commonly results in septic emboli to which organ?
• Fenoldopam has vasodilatory effects in which vascular beds?
• In alcoholic pancreatitis, which laboratory finding is commonly observed?
• Hepatic steatosis due to alcohol is caused by which metabolic change?
• The Nucleus basalis of Meynert primarily releases which neurotransmitter?
• Which drug, commonly used as a first-generation antihistamine, can cause anticholinergic adverse effects?
• Gestational choriocarcinoma arises from
• Which receptor subtype couples to Gs and increases cAMP in cardiac tissue?
• Which combination should be avoided due to additive negative chronotropic effect?
• G6PD deficiency histology shows which features?
• Which agent is used as an antidote for cyanide poisoning?
• In the lac operon, the cAMP-CAP complex has what effect on transcription?
• Lactose intolerance is typically associated with which diagnostic feature?
• Intrinsic apoptosis activation is triggered by the release of which molecule from mitochondria?
• Which drug directly inhibits androgen receptor binding?
• Repeated splenic infarctions in sickle cell disease can lead to which splenic condition?
• Metformin primarily lowers blood glucose by which mechanism?
• Gastrin stimulates acid secretion primarily via which receptor on ECL cells?
• Which antibiotic is an aminoglycoside used for tuberculosis?
• Staphylococcal Scalded Skin Syndrome is caused by which type of toxin?
• An anterior cerebral artery stroke commonly presents with weakness in which region on the opposite side?
• Which insulin is commonly used as a rapid-acting analog for preprandial dosing?
• Neonatal abstinence syndrome results from withdrawal from which substances?
• Alpha-1 Antitrypsin deficiency in the liver shows which histologic feature?
• Right-sided infectious endocarditis septic emboli most commonly lodge in which site?
• Folate deficiency commonly presents with which hematologic finding?
• Which process converts glutamate to glutamine in astrocytes to terminate excitatory signaling?
• A single episode of vertigo is most likely due to inflammation of which cranial nerve?
• TB activates immune cells and cytokines in several responses. Which pairing correctly identifies the cell type and key cytokines involved?
• Which vitamin is a key cofactor for transamination reactions in amino acid metabolism?
• Which disease is commonly linked to Raphe nuclei dysfunction?
• Angiotensin II primarily constricts which renal arteriole?
• Which statement describes the hallmark of Lesch-Nyhan syndrome?
• Pseudohyphae with blastoconidia in the bloodstream are most characteristic of infection with which organism?
• Which presentation is most characteristic of congenital pyloric stenosis?
• Dactinomycin is an example of which class of anticancer drugs?
• Which statement about neonatal respiratory distress syndrome is true?
• The derivatives of the 4th and 6th pharyngeal arches include which of the following structures?
• A patient presents with a ring-enhancing brain lesion and seizures; which organism is most likely responsible?
• Donepezil is best described as which type of drug?
• Benign prostatic hyperplasia can lead to which bladder finding?
• Gumma formation and tabes dorsalis are features of which stage of syphilis?
• Narcolepsy is associated with lack of hypocretin produced by neurons in which hypothalamic region?
• Which medication is used to treat Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome?
• In hepatocytes, binding of glucagon to its receptor activates which signaling cascade?
• Beta-lactam antibiotics are associated with which renal adverse effect?
• Disulfiram inhibits which enzyme to discourage alcohol use?
• Grey hepatization is the second gross stage of lobar pneumonia and occurs in which time frame after onset?
• Porphyria Cutanea Tarda is primarily caused by deficiency of which enzyme?
• Down syndrome in children is associated with an increased risk of which type of leukemia?
• Transketolase is an enzyme in the pentose phosphate pathway that requires which cofactor and operates in which cellular compartment?
• Osteoid is produced by which bone-forming cells?
• Fanconi syndrome commonly presents with which urinary finding?
• Struvite stones are classically associated with urinary tract infections caused by urease-producing organisms such as which of the following?
• Activation of alpha-1 receptors leads to an increase in which second messenger?
• Posterior subserosal uterine fibroids can cause constipation due to compression of which structure?
• A hydrocele can be a presenting feature of an indirect inguinal hernia due to a patent processus vaginalis.
• Vitamin A toxicity is known to be teratogenic, including which defects?
• Which combination of findings suggests failure of neural tube fusion (spina bifida)?
• Milrinone is used for which clinical indication?
• Which combination forms the alveolar-capillary gas exchange barrier?
• Hypercalcemia of malignancy is commonly associated with which cancer?
• Which of the following is a histologic feature of mesothelioma?
• Hemiballism is most commonly due to lesion in which brain structure?
• Kaposi sarcoma is associated with infection by which herpesvirus?
• At 3–7 days after infarction, which cell type is predominantly present?
• Loss of sensation after a femoral nerve injury is typically over which region?
• Red nucleus disease is associated with which condition?
• Which patient profile best describes a high risk for cholesterol gallstones?
• Which protein is classically associated with familial forms of amyotrophic lateral sclerosis?
• Bevacizumab targets which molecule?
• Initial management of adrenal crisis should include
• In a cohort study, which statistic is used to compare risk between groups?
• O2-Hgb dissociation left shift is promoted by which conditions?
• In skeletal muscle contraction, which occurs?
• Which medication used to treat BPH also decreases hair loss due to 5-alpha-reductase inhibition?
• Jarisch-Herxheimer reaction after syphilis treatment is best described as a flu-like syndrome caused by what?
• A hamartoma is best described as:
• Coronary steal occurs due to arteriolar dilation in which regions?
• Esophageal cancer in the lower third is most commonly which histology?
• Heparin is released from which cell?
• Which thalamic nucleus relays visual information to the occipital cortex?
• Colonic atresia is associated with absence of which neural plexus?
• Which gene is mutated in hereditary breast and ovarian cancer syndrome?
• Which class of antiarrhythmics prolongs the PR interval and can cause edema and constipation, and should not be used with beta-blockers?
• Which disorder is defined by intentional fabrication of symptoms to obtain external incentives?
• Which mediators are associated with carcinoid syndrome?
• Dermatitis herpetiformis is most strongly associated with which condition?
• Chiari II malformation is characterized by which feature leading to hydrocephalus?
• In amyotrophic lateral sclerosis, which patterns of neuron involvement are observed?
• Membrane proteins are primarily synthesized in which cellular location?
• Ethosuximide is most effective for which type of seizures?
• Amenorrhea is an adverse effect of risperidone due to hyperprolactinemia.
• Which lesion is classically associated with primary syphilis?
• Which therapy is used to maintain ductus arteriosus patency in ductus-dependent lesions by providing prostaglandin E1?
• IL-5 is associated with production of which immunoglobulin?
• The Haldane effect refers to which phenomenon?
• Which serologic marker is commonly associated with Crohn disease?
• Which event is a known precipitating factor for Sheehan syndrome?
• The 3rd pharyngeal pouch gives rise to which structures?
• Autoimmune gastritis leads to loss of which gastric cells, contributing to pernicious anemia?
• In Niemann-Pick disease, which lipid accumulates?
• Most common cause of sporadic encephalitis?
• Abciximab exerts its antiplatelet effect by inhibiting which receptor?
• Which enzyme mediates conversion of thyroxine (T4) to the active thyroid hormone T3?
• Trastuzumab targets which receptor?
• Which agent is a thrombolytic?
• Which drug is used to increase fetal hemoglobin and reduce sickling in sickle cell disease?
• To acutely reduce intracranial pressure, which is the recommended ventilatory change?
• For diabetic nephropathy with albuminuria due to Kimmelstiel-Wilson nodules, which class of medication is commonly used to reduce proteinuria?
• Malingering is characterized by intentional production of symptoms for external incentives.
• Which description best characterizes Crohn disease pattern?
• Rasburicase reduces serum uric acid by which mechanism?
• Subacute sclerosing panencephalitis (SSPE) is a late complication of which virus?
• IgG antibodies are found predominantly in which compartments?
• Which process is vitamin K directly involved in for hepatic clotting factors?
• Which agent is used to counteract methotrexate toxicity by providing reduced folate?
• Which set lists the factors that comprise the intrinsic coagulation pathway?
• The enzyme that catalyzes insertion of iron into protoporphyrin IX is?
• Which statement best explains why antiandrogens are given with leuprolide in the management of prostate cancer?
• Which pharyngeal pouch gives rise to the middle ear and auditory tube?
• GLUT2 is expressed in which of the following tissues?
• Ivabradine is used in which condition?
• Which globin chain composition defines Hemoglobin F?
• Newborn infants are routinely given which intervention to prevent hemorrhagic disease of the newborn?
• Which paraneoplastic syndrome is commonly associated with small cell lung cancer?
• Calcitonin's effect on calcium is to decrease serum calcium by which mechanism?
• During transient cerebral ischemia, cellular swelling is primarily due to accumulation of which ions?
• Serotonin is synthesized from which amino acid?
• Vemurafenib inhibits which oncogene product?
• Dobutamine is a beta-adrenergic agonist that increases heart rate and contractility via which signaling pathway?
• ACE inhibitors decrease GFR by preferentially dilating which renal arterioles?
• In GERD, what happens to the tone of the lower esophageal sphincter?
• The tuberoinfundibular dopaminergic pathway runs from the hypothalamus to the pituitary and has what effect on prolactin secretion?
• Which metabolite from the propionyl-CoA pathway directly feeds into the TCA cycle as succinyl-CoA?
• Gerstmann syndrome results from a lesion in which brain region?
• Which virus is commonly associated with pharyngoconjunctival fever?
• Which vitamin enhances non-heme iron absorption by reducing ferric to ferrous iron?
• Porphyria Cutanea Tarda is associated with which factors?
• The mechanism of tetanus toxin causing spastic paralysis involves inhibition of release of which neurotransmitters?
• Which toxin is responsible for the exfoliation seen in Staphylococcal Scalded Skin Syndrome?
• Which selective B1 blocker is commonly used for long-term management of left ventricular systolic dysfunction?
• Vitamin A, in its active form retinol, is essential for which functions?
• What is the osmolarity of filtrate in the distal convoluted tubule compared with plasma?
• Chronic lung transplant rejection is associated with which condition?
• Absolute polycythemia is defined by an increase in which parameter?
• Which drug is bimodally acetylated in the liver?
• Which diuretic is known for increasing calcium reabsorption and reducing calcium stone risk?
• Which antibody class is typically the first to respond in a primary immune response?
• Placenta accreta is defined by chorionic villi attaching to which uterine layer?
• Drug resistance genes in viruses are located in which genetic element?
• Riboflavin is a precursor to which flavin coenzymes?
• Systemic Mastocytosis is commonly driven by a mutation in which receptor tyrosine kinase?
• Which antidepressant class requires wash-out before starting another antidepressant due to risk of dangerous interactions?
• Splenic sequestration in sickle cell disease presents with which scenario?
• Scarlet fever can be followed by which complications in some patients?
• Nodular sclerosis Hodgkin lymphoma is classically associated with which finding?
• Which molecule inhibits carnitine palmitoyltransferase I, decreasing fatty acid entry into mitochondria?
• Which category of DNA-binding proteins requires zinc to interact with DNA sequences?
• Pharyngeal arches are formed from which tissue sources?
• Which hepatitis B virus antigens are involved in activating CD8+ T cells to destroy infected hepatocytes?
• Raloxifene decreases the risk of osteoporosis and breast cancer by acting as which type of agent?
• Rifaximin, used in hepatic encephalopathy, is best described as which type of agent?
• In disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC), which pattern of laboratory findings is typical?
• Which hormone has a structure similar to hCG due to shared alpha and beta subunits?
• Claw hand, particularly affecting the 4th and 5th digits, is a classic presentation of injury to which nerve?
• Norovirus has which type of genome?
• Aminoglycosides are contraindicated in which neuromuscular disorder?
• When abuse of a child is suspected, what is the first action a clinician should take?
• Fenoldopam provides hypertensive emergency relief primarily by causing which vascular effect?
• Giant cell bone lesion is most commonly located in which part of the bone?
• Palatine tonsils originate from which pharyngeal pouch?
• Which muscarinic antagonist is less likely to cause central nervous system effects due to its quaternary structure and is commonly used to reduce secretions?
• Which histopathologic change is typically seen 1-2 weeks after brain ischemia?
• In von Willebrand disease, which laboratory test is typically prolonged?
• Acute interstitial nephritis is commonly caused by which of the following?
• Major and minor calyces are derivatives of which structure in kidney development?
• During viral transformation, virulence is gained from which source?
• Lactic acidosis is a known adverse effect of which antiretroviral drug class?
• Which cell type expresses surface immunoglobulin as part of its antigen receptor?
• Which teratogenic effect is associated with lithium exposure during pregnancy?
• Recurrent vertigo is most consistent with which condition?
• Lipophilic drugs are predominantly metabolized in which organ?
• Renal impairment in multiple myeloma is commonly due to which finding?
• Which immunophenotype is typical for Chronic Lymphocytic Leukemia?
• Rb is activated when it is in which phosphorylation state?
• Serum sickness is which type of hypersensitivity reaction?
• Lactic acidosis is an adverse effect associated with HAART. Which option describes this condition?
• Mitral valve prolapse is most closely associated with which histopathologic finding?
• Which expression correctly defines Negative Predictive Value (NPV)?
• Which tumor is most specifically associated with neurofibromatosis type 2?
• Which adverse effect is commonly associated with non-dihydropyridine calcium channel blockers such as verapamil and diltiazem?
• In glycogen metabolism, which reaction is catalyzed by glycogen phosphorylase?
• In albinism, the biochemical defect is due to
• Activation of isoniazid requires which enzyme?
• The afferent limb of the pupillary light reflex travels in which cranial nerve?
• HIV envelope proteins gp120/gp41 mediate entry by binding to which receptors on T cells?
• Dysgerminoma is typically associated with elevated levels of which markers?
• Vitamin B12 deficiency typically shows which combination of findings?
• Which drug is a 5α-reductase inhibitor used for BPH and male pattern baldness?
• Which drug is known to cause gynecomastia?
• Caloric content per gram of fat?
• Abacavir hypersensitivity reaction is strongly associated with which host HLA allele?
• In multiple myeloma, which serum profile best describes calcium and PTH levels?
• Which of the following is a common risk factor for developing ARDS?
• What is the mechanism of action of isoniazid?
• Which molecule mediates transmigration (diapedesis) of neutrophils across the endothelium?
• Neurophysin carries which peptide hormones?
• Exposure to Aspergillus-derived aflatoxin is associated with which mutation and its consequence in the liver?
• Which scenario is a classic example of hypovolemic shock?
• Acetyl-CoA promotes gluconeogenesis by activating pyruvate carboxylase, increasing levels of which intermediate?
• Glucagon-secreting tumors (glucagonoma) arise from which pancreatic cell type?
• Which class of medication is contraindicated in C1 esterase inhibitor deficiency due to risk of angioedema?
• Which agent is used to treat MDD with atypical features?
• The Philadelphia chromosome translocation t(9;22) produces the BCR-ABL fusion and is most associated with which leukemia?
• Hirschsprung disease involves failure of neural crest cell migration and typically affects which part of the bowel?
• Which clinical features are characteristic of Toxic Shock Syndrome?
• Donepezil belongs to which pharmacologic class?
• Endometriosis is characterized by the presence of which tissue?
• Libman-Sacks endocarditis is associated with which disease?
• In vertically transmitted HIV infections, which findings may be present in the infant?
• Which of the following beta-blockers is nonselective and is associated with open-angle glaucoma as an adverse effect due to decreased aqueous humor secretion?
• Granulosa cell tumor is associated with elevated levels of which hormones?
• Entamoeba histolytica is the causative agent of which infection?
• What is a major adverse effect of thiourea anti-thyroid drugs?
• Which of the following organisms is a GI pathogen that commonly triggers reactive arthritis?
• In cholestasis, which bilirubin fraction is elevated?
• Latanoprost lowers intraocular pressure by which mechanism?
• Venous thrombosis in paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria most commonly involves which sites?
• Which inherited condition is characterized by extreme photosensitivity and a high risk of skin cancer due to defective nucleotide excision repair?
• Transforming growth factor-beta is associated with the formation of which scar type?
• Which type of bone lesion is most characteristic of multiple myeloma?
• Which laboratory test assesses the intrinsic coagulation pathway?
• Deficiencies of which vitamins can cause macrocytic megaloblastic anemia?
• Which blot technique is used to detect protein?
• Which cell type is primarily associated with early IFN-gamma production in response to IL-12?
• Which breast cancer is classically described as 'rock hard'?
• Which lipid-lowering drug class increases hepatic LDL receptor density as part of its mechanism?
• Which description best matches the typical mutation in Duchenne muscular dystrophy?
• Invasion of which breast structure can cause skin dimpling in breast cancer?
• Niacin increases HDL primarily by which mechanism?
• Which immunoglobulin is naturally occurring and typically the first antibody produced in response to infection?
• Which enzyme deficiency causes Tay-Sachs disease?
• Which pigment is produced directly by heme oxygenase?
• Which adverse effect is most associated with the thiazolidinedione class?
• Which agent is commonly used to treat Ulcerative Colitis?
• Ivabradine reduces heart rate by blocking which current?
• Which action best describes somatostatin's effect?
• Which translocation is associated with acute promyelocytic leukemia and is treated with all-trans retinoic acid?
• In hypertrophic cardiomyopathy, the outflow tract murmur often increases with which maneuver?
• Lesion of the lateral hypothalamus results in which of the following?
• Phenylalanine hydroxylation to tyrosine requires which cofactor?
• Crutch-induced neuropathy commonly injures which nerve, presenting with thumb drop?
• A hamartoma is best described as a lesion composed of tissue native to the site. This tissue is:
• Distributive shock example?
• Which combination of findings is characteristic of multiple sclerosis?
• Turner syndrome is also associated with which valve abnormality?
• Cromoglycate acts as which type of agent in asthma therapy?
• What is a primary anti-inflammatory mechanism of corticosteroids in asthma?
• Estrogen's effect on cholesterol gallstone risk is best described as which of the following?
• Montelukast is a leukotriene receptor antagonist used to treat asthma. Which receptor is blocked by this drug?
• Which cytokine is most closely associated with promoting IFN-γ production?
• Niacin adverse effects commonly include which of the following?
• Hypercalcemia in sarcoidosis is primarily due to?
• S4 gallop is associated with which condition due to decreased left ventricular compliance?
• Leukocyte adhesion deficiency is caused by a defect in which molecule?
• Which autoantibody is commonly positive in primary sclerosing cholangitis?
• Which antiarrhythmic is used after myocardial infarction and in digitalis toxicity?
• Carotid sinus massage increases baroreceptor firing. What is an expected cardiac effect?
• Carbidopa's primary action is to inhibit what peripherally?
• Which mediators are reduced in PAH?
• Which hormone has a permissive effect on norepinephrine's vasoconstrictive response?
• Which sign is most characteristic of a lower motor neuron lesion?
• Syringomyelia presents with which pattern of sensory loss?
• Papilledema is best described as which of the following?
• Methotrexate is indicated for which of the following conditions?
• Opioids influence neuronal ion conductance by which changes?
• A key histopathologic feature of chronic renal allograft rejection is obliterative vascular fibrosis leading to which outcome?
• Which organism is most notably associated with growth requirements that include cysteine and iron on a specialized medium?
• Serotonin neurons are located in which brain region?
• What is the recommended treatment for fever in a child when there are no complications?
• Administration of glucose to an unconscious patient with Wernicke encephalopathy, before giving thiamine, can cause damage to which brain structure?
• In hypertrophic cardiomyopathy, how does decreased preload affect the murmur?
• In a normal distribution, approximately what percentage of data fall within two standard deviations of the mean?
• Scrotum drains to which lymph nodes?
• Which artery primarily supplies blood to the femoral head?
• Which therapy mimics the LH surge to induce ovulation?
• Classic presentation of testicular torsion includes severe acute pain with nausea/vomiting and which reflex abnormality?
• Subarachnoid hemorrhage can be associated with rupture related to which congenital vascular condition?
• Which tumor suppressor gene is associated with clear cell renal cell carcinoma?
• Calcitriol is produced in which location?
• Direct inguinal hernias are characterized by which statement?
• Which organism is least likely to contribute to struvite stone formation due to lack of urease production?
• In obstructive shock, preload is typically what?
• Which brain structure is most vulnerable to ischemia and is often associated with Alzheimer's disease?
• H. pylori gastritis increases risk for which gastric condition?
• Osteogenesis imperfecta can present with which combination?
• Lower quadrantanopsia produced by a lesion in which lobe?
• Chlamydia inclusions are found in which location?
• The clinical manifestations of hypercalcemia include which of the following?
• Most esophageal diverticula are which type?
• In a femoral neck fracture, injury to which artery increases risk of femoral head osteonecrosis?
• Which substances are absorbed at the brush border?
• An anterior dislocation of the shoulder most commonly injures which nerve, resulting in deltoid flattening and sensory loss over the lateral shoulder?
• Cerebral amyloid angiopathy typically presents in which patient scenario?
• Which is a common cause of cardiogenic shock?
• Fatty streaks are caused by which cells?
• Porcelain gallbladder has a risk for which cancer?
• Which of the following questions best identifies a pathological feature of paraneoplastic cerebellar degeneration?
• Which muscle is primarily affected in Trendelenburg gait due to contralateral superior gluteal nerve injury?
• Mitral regurgitation murmur is best heard at which location?
• The arteriovenous O2 content difference is used to estimate what physiological parameter?
• KRAS mutation leads to resistance to anti-EGFR therapy in which cancer?
• Why is nephrotic syndrome associated with thrombosis?
• Which vascular change characterizes PAH in the pulmonary circulation?
• Legionella requires which growth factors or conditions for optimal culture?
• Which organ is retroperitoneal?
• Which mechanism decreases cytosolic calcium by pumping it into the sarcoplasmic reticulum?
• Splenic vein thrombosis causes gastric varices primarily in which region of the stomach?
• What is a recommended treatment for acute porphyria attacks?
• Which of the following is a standard treatment for neovascular age-related macular degeneration?
• For volume loss shock, which intravenous fluid is listed as an option?
• Which statement is true about NRTIs?
• To prevent pulmonary embolism from deep venous thrombosis, a filter is placed where?
• Nitrates increase cGMP leading to what effect in vascular smooth muscle?
• In eclampsia, what is an additional manifestation beyond hypertension and proteinuria?
• Which combination of clinical features is commonly seen in von Willebrand disease?
• During the early fasting period (1–3 days), activation of which enzyme mobilizes fatty acids?
• Which patient scenario most predicts reduced efficacy of SGLT2 inhibitors?
• Cyclin D in complex with CDK4/6 drives the cell cycle from G1 to which phase?
• Which antibiotic should not be taken with calcium carbonate due to absorption interference?
• Which of the following is a recommended treatment approach to prevent homocystinuria?
• Which targeted therapy is effective for HER2-positive breast cancer?
• Selective IgA deficiency: which of the following is a known risk during transfusion?
• Which agent is a depolarizing neuromuscular blocker that can trigger malignant hyperthermia?
• Respiratory alkalosis is most commonly caused by which of the following?
• Which of the following is a classic sign of femoral nerve injury?
• Paclitaxel acts as which type of microtubule inhibitor?
• Upper Quadrantanopsia lesion localizes to which region?
• Iron deficiency anemia is typically associated with which peripheral smear finding?
• Hemosiderin-laden macrophages in tissue are indicative of which cardiac dysfunction?
• Which intervention decreases preload?
• Liver angiosarcoma is associated with exposure to which toxins?
• Which process is a hallmark of healing at 10–14 days after infarction?
• X-linked agammaglobulinemia presents with which immunophenotype?
• Aldolase B deficiency causes hereditary fructose intolerance; which dietary component triggers symptoms?
• Hemorrhagic cystitis is a potential complication of cyclophosphamide chemotherapy. Which agent is used to prevent it by binding the toxic metabolite acrolein?
• A pituitary macroadenoma causing gigantism may present with bitemporal hemianopsia and elevated prolactin due to stalk effect. Which hormone is elevated?
• Which syndrome is associated with increased risk of pancreatic adenocarcinoma?
• Duodenal atresia is associated with which chromosomal abnormality?
• In classic hemophilia, which laboratory abnormality is expected?
• What pathophysiologic change contributes to edema in heart failure as described?
• Gamma-hemolysis on blood agar is most commonly associated with which organism?
• Folate is essential for the synthesis of which nucleotides?
• Osmotic demyelination syndrome can present with which motor finding?
• Phenytoin exerts its antiepileptic effect primarily by blocking which ion channel?
• Which statement best identifies the role of clomiphene in ovulation induction for PCOS?
• What is the mechanism by which Aspergillus disseminates in invasive disease?
• The typical lesion of chancroid is described as:
• Osteoid osteoma is typically located in which region of the bone?
• Elastin crosslinks involve which amino acid residue?
• Which murmurs typically decrease with handgrip due to increased afterload?
• Which autoantibody is most characteristically associated with CREST syndrome?
• Which drug is a leukotriene receptor antagonist used in asthma?
• Anastrozole slows progression of which type of breast cancer?
• 17α-hydroxylase deficiency presents with
• Which statement best describes synovitis?
• E. coli K1 capsule is most strongly associated with which condition in neonates?
• Bronchopneumonia is best described by which radiographic pattern?
• Bronchopneumonia is commonly associated with which organism?
• Which of the following agents is best described as a nonsteroidal antiandrogen?
• The third pharyngeal arch contributes to which structures?
• Intraductal papilloma is characterized by papillary epithelial cells with what structural feature?
• Neuroblastoma is commonly associated with amplification of which gene?
• Quinolones inhibit which bacterial enzyme?
• Which condition most strongly causes a left shift in the oxygen-hemoglobin dissociation curve?
• In alpha-thalassemia, deletion of three alpha-globin genes results in which condition?
• Which murmurs intensify with handgrip due to increased afterload?
• In colorectal cancer, a KRAS mutation predicts resistance to which targeted therapy?
• T3 and T4 circulate bound to which transport protein?
• Ketoconazole is best described as which of the following?
• Oxygen supplementation in premature infants is associated with which complication?
• Which antibody is typically the first to be produced during a primary humoral immune response?
• What is the mechanism of action of amphotericin B?
• Which blot technique is used to detect RNA molecules?
• Activation of alpha-2 receptors has which primary effect on insulin release?
• Which hypothalamic nucleus is associated with regulation of circadian rhythms through melatonin signaling?
• Which hypothalamic nucleus is associated with satiety?
• Continuous administration of GnRH (leuprolide) results in what change in testosterone and DHT?
• Mallory-Weiss tears are which of the following?
• Which ovarian tumor is associated with yellow theca cells?
• During cross-bridge cycling, ATP binding to myosin causes which event?
• The enzyme that converts ALA to porphobilinogen is?
• Which class of medications is a mainstay for controlling airway inflammation in asthma?
• Which sequence accurately describes the events leading to insulin release from pancreatic beta cells after K-ATP channel closure?
• A lucid interval is a classic feature of which intracranial bleed?
• Which tumors are characteristic of MEN2B?
• Which drug is primarily used for absence seizures?
• Polygenic inheritance is characterized by being controlled by more than two genes.
• Which therapy is used to enhance T-cell activity against melanoma by blocking an inhibitory checkpoint?
• Cardiac output is determined by which two factors?
• In a PCOS patient who desires pregnancy, which agent is typically used to induce ovulation?
• Which of the following adverse effects are associated with proton pump inhibitors?
• In Huntington's disease, CAG repeats cause which change in the DNA?
• Which enzyme converts acetaldehyde to acetate?
• Which cells predominantly produce interferon-gamma in response to IL-12?
• Which hormone is primarily produced in the stomach and increases appetite?
• Which feature is characteristic of macrocytic megaloblastic anemia?
• Methacholine challenge test is used in bronchial provocation testing because methacholine acts as which type of receptor agonist causing bronchoconstriction?
• Influenza vaccines target which viral protein to prevent entry into host cells?
• Which two shock states characteristically show elevated PCWP?
• Interstitial pneumonia is commonly caused by which group of pathogens?
• Which drug is given prenatally to enhance fetal lung maturity by accelerating type II pneumocyte maturation?
• Vertical gaze palsy suggests lesion of which nerve?
• Friedreich ataxia is caused by autosomal recessive expansion of repeats in which gene?
• Entacapone acts to decrease which enzyme peripherally?
• Malignant hyperthermia susceptibility is associated with which genetic factor?
• Which equation correctly represents maintenance dose at steady state?
• Fabry disease results from deficiency of which enzyme?
• What diagnostic test is classically used to confirm myasthenia gravis by acutely increasing acetylcholine at the neuromuscular junction?
• Which deiodinase enzyme is responsible for converting T4 to T3?
• HOX genes encode which type of molecule?
• A classic skull radiographic finding due to marrow expansion in sickle cell disease is known as which?
• Which autoantibody is commonly positive in SLE and often used as an initial screening test?
• Lacunar strokes are most commonly caused by lipohyalinosis of which vessels?
• Vasoactive intestinal peptide (VIP) has which effects on the GI tract?